Based on the diagram, the structures which distinguish that this is plant cell and not an animal cell are 1 and 3 and is denoted as option B.
What is a Plant cell?This is referred to as a eukaryotic cell enclosed by a cell wall, containing a membrane-bound nucleus and other cell organelles.
it however varies from the animal cell through the presence of structures such as the cell wall which helps in ensuring that it has a rigid structure and is able to withstand stress and also the presence of chloroplast which contains the pigment needed for its photosynthetic activities.
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Confused:( I’m currently a high school student but I’m taking this college anthro 1 online class since my counselor said I need it for my transcript but I’m so lost in this last question :[
Answer: 5a. 0% 5b. 50% 5c. 50%
Explanation: It is asking for you to cross an individual who is heterozygous for this trait, Ee, with someone who has attached earlobes. Because this is the recessive trait they must be ee. With that in mind your Punnett Square should be an Ee x ee. So 0% of the offspring will be homozygous dominant, EE. 50% will be homozygous recessive, ee. And 50% will be heterozygous, Ee.
Hope this helps.
Complete each statement by dragging each label into the appropriate blank. Then place the statements in order to coincide 20 with the the vesicular transport process. Drag the text blocks below into their correct order. peroxisome phagosome A wandering macrophage encounters a bacterium. trancytosis Release of the digested bacterium indicates the excretion of waste products via vesicle pinocytosis Enzymes from the lysosome degrade and digest the bacterium. macrophage When completely surrounded, the bacterium is brought inside the cell membrane and forms a phagosome. exocytosis The now moves back to the cell membrane where it fuses endocytosis once again. lysosome
A bacterium is discovered by a wandering macrophage. When the bacterium is completely surrounded, it is brought inside the cell membrane and forms a phagosome. --> Via vesicle transport, the phagosome moves through the cell. -->> Lysosome enzymes degrade and digest the bacterium. —>>
What is the process ?To complete the process, the following statements can be included:
The peroxisome is also involved in the degradation of toxic substances produced during the phagocytosis process. Transcytosis is a process that, like endocytosis and exocytosis, involves the use of vesicles to transport substances across a cell or through a cell layer.
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Which of the following functional groups most appropriately describes the type of acyl group in vitamin C?
A. lactum
B. ester
C. ether
D. lactone
The functional group most appropriately describe the type of acyl group in vitamin C is ether.
Thus, the correct answer is C.
Vitаmin C, аlso known аs аscorbic аcid, is а very essentiаl vitаmin which is to be required by our body dаily in the diet. Vitаmin C is soluble in wаter аnd is therefore known аs the wаter-soluble vitаmins. Wаter soluble vitаmins аre those vitаmins which must be supplied in the diet regulаrly becаuse they аre reаdily excreted in urine аnd cаnnot be stored in our body.
The structure of Vitаmin C in the functionаl groups present аre:
-OH group (i.e. hydroxyl group),-C=O (cаrbonyl group), аnd -O- group (i.e. ether group)Hence, the functionаl group in vitаmin C аre hydroxyl, cаrbonyl аnd ether respectively.
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How are meiosis and genetic traits related?
Answer:
parental germ cells undergo meiosis and produce gametes that carry specific alleles, and two gametes unite during fertilization to form offspring.
Explanation:
why was dry bread included in the experiment ?
Answer:
The purpose of the experiment is to find out how the amount of moisture affects the growth of mould on bread.
Explanation:
I'm guessing your experiment was about mold
In peas, Round seeds are dominant over Wrinkled, and Yellow is dominant over Green. A wrinkled, yellow (aaBb) plant is crossed with a round, yellow(AaBb) plant and a large number of offspring are produced. Given the results below, calculate the overall Chi-Squared (observed) value for these data. Hint: You will first need to determine the
expected Phenotypic ratio for this cross.
66.67
Wrinkled, Yellow 250
Wrinkled, Green 150
Round, Yellow 250
Round, Green 150
In peas, Round seeds are dominant over the Wrinkled and Yellow is dominant over the Green. Wrinkled, yellow (aaBb) plant is crossed with round, yellow(AaBb) plant and large number of offspring are produced. Overall Chi-Squared value is : 66.67.
What is meant by phenotype?In genetics, phenotype is the set of observable characteristics or traits of an organism. The term covers the morphology of organism, its developmental processes, biochemical and physiological properties, behavior and the products of behavior.
Genotype of a person is their unique sequence of DNA. This term is used to refer to two alleles a person has inherited for particular gene. Phenotype is the detectable expression of this genotype which is a patient's clinical presentation.
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Which of the following cells would most likely have the greatest concentration of densely packed rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a) An amoeba engulfing small ciliates
b) A bioluminescent bacterial cell
c) A pancreatic cell engaged in the production of digestive enzymes
d) A functional phloem cell at maturity
e) An epithelial cell whose DNA is replicating before mitosis
A pancreatic cell producing digesting enzymes would most likely have the highest concentration of densely packed rough endoplasmic reticulum. Option C is correct.
An organelle is a specialized component with a specific purpose found within a cell. Organelles are either separate lipid bilayer-enclosed functional units known as membrane-bound organelles or spatially distinct functional units known as non-membrane bound organelles. The endoplasmic reticulum is the transportation system of the eukaryotic cell, but it also conducts many other important functions such as protein folding.
It is an organelle composed of two subunits: rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The rough endoplasmic reticulum receives its name from the way it looks. It is a network of flattened sacs with numerous ribosomes on the outside, thus the name. It is responsible for the synthesis and secretion of proteins in the liver, as well as hormones and other chemicals in the glands.
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Carbon has 4 electrons and hydrogen has 1 electron in its outermost electron shell. A carbon atom can form covalent bonds with how many hydrogen atoms?
A) 0.
B) 4.
C) 2.
D) 3.
E) 1.
Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with four univalent atoms, e.g. hydrogen.
What is Covalent bond ?A chemical link known as a covalent bond includes the exchanging of electrons between atoms to create electron pairs. These electron couples are referred to as bonding pairs or sharing pairs. Covalent bonding is the stable equilibrium of the forces that attract and repel atoms when they share electrons.
Ionic bonds are formed between atoms of metals and non-metals when the metal loses an electron to complete its octet and the non-metal gains that electron to complete its octet, as opposed to covalent bonds, which are formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms in order to complete their octet.
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which of the following is an example of biotic component of an ecosystem?
A. the climate
b. a cockroach
c. water
d. synthetic pesticides
An example of biotic component of an ecosystem is cockroach (b).
Ecosystem : Abiotic and Biotic
Ecosystem involves the interaction between biotic and abiotic factors. Abiotic are the non-living components that impact the biotic. The biotic factors are living things within in ecosystem. These factors influence each other.
According to Whittaker, living things are divided into five kingdoms: monera, protist, fungi, animal and plant. As a living thing, cockroach is an example of animal, while the climate, water and synthetic pesticides belong to abiotic factors.
Thus, from all options, cockroach is a part of biotic component.
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T/F the base of the heart is the inferior pointed end, and the apex is the wide portion from which the great vessels emerge.
False. The base of the heart is the wide portion from which the great vessels emerge, and the apex is the inferior pointed end.
The base of the heart is located at the top of the heart and is the widest portion of the heart, from which the great vessels emerge. The apex of the heart is the inferior pointed end of the heart, located at the bottom. The apex is formed by the tip of the left ventricle, and it is located in the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line. Understanding the anatomy of the heart is important for healthcare providers when assessing heart sounds, murmurs, and other cardiac abnormalities.
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draw the expected pattern of bands on a gel that shows the alleles for the seized tusk and the elephant you identified as a potential match for str loci fh60 and fh129. include a dna ladder that has dna fragments that are 125, 150, and 175 bp in size.
The STR loci FH60 and FH129 are short tandem repeat regions of DNA. When amplified by PCR, the number of repeats in these regions will determine the size of the DNA fragment produced.
If the seized tusk and the potential elephant match have the same number of repeats in these regions, they will produce the same size fragment and therefore show the same band pattern on a gel. The DNA ladder with fragments of known sizes will allow for accurate determination of the size of the DNA fragments produced by the PCR amplification. The expected band pattern will show bands at the sizes corresponding to the PCR products of FH60 and FH129 for both the seized tusk and the potential elephant match, with the same number and size of bands indicating a match. The STR loci FH60 and FH129 are short tandem repeat regions of DNA. When amplified by PCR, the number of repeats in these regions will determine the size of the DNA fragment produced.
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which of the following statements about genetic linkage is generally true? see section 5.1 (page 147
It is commonly accepted that the closer two genes are to one another on a chromosome, the more likely it is that they will be inherited together during meiosis in genetic linkage.
The likelihood that two genes will be inherited together during meiosis increases with the distance between them on a chromosome, which is a general rule of genetic linkage. This is true because genetic linkage describes the propensity for genes that are adjacent to one another on a chromosome to be passed down as a group rather than separately. Recombination, or the exchange of genetic material across homologous chromosomes, is a process that determines how closely two genes are linked. Therefore, genetic linkage is crucial for comprehending the patterns of trait inheritance and the location of genes on chromosomes.
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What is a generally true statement about genetic linkage?
Name the best quality coal?
Answer:
Anthracite
Explanation:
Answer: Anthracite
Explanation:
in the trimester view of prenatal development, both the germinal and embryonic periods of development occur during the ____
In the trimester view of prenatal development, both the germinal and embryonic periods of development occur during the third through the eighth week.
The prenatal development process is really divided into three phases. The first two weeks following conception are referred to as the germinal stage, the third through eighth weeks as the embryonic phase, and the ninth week until delivery as the fetal period. The germinal stage of pregnancy begins with conception, when sperm and egg join to create a zygote. The zygote begins to split during the germinal stage in order to implant into the uterine wall.
The embryonic stage begins once implantation is accomplished. When a blastocyst implants in the uterus at the end of the first week following conception, its interior cell mass, formerly known as the embryoblast, is renamed the embryo. The embryonic stage lasts until the eighth week after conception, when the embryo is referred to as a fetus. The embryonic stage is brief, lasting just around seven weeks, yet the alterations that occur during this time cause huge changes in the embryo. During the embryonic period, the embryo not only grows in size but also in complexity.
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If you tore your Achilles tendon, you would be unable to perform all of the following muscle actions excepta. bending your foot downwardb. standing on your toesc. pulling your knees tp your chestd. walking
Option B, if you tore your Achilles tendon, you would be unable to perform standing on your toes.
The Achilles tendon is a strong, fibrous cord that connects the muscles in the back of your calf to your heel bone. It is the largest tendon in the body and is responsible for the action of plantar flexion, which involves pointing the toes downward. If the Achilles tendon is torn, the ability to perform plantar flexion is greatly diminished. Therefore, the ability to stand on one's toes is also compromised. However, the other actions listed - bending the foot downward, pulling the knees to the chest, and walking - do not rely heavily on the Achilles tendon and would still be possible to some extent.
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a. Imagine generating two random sequences, each 100 nucleotides in length. If you align them pairwise, at how many positions are they expected to match just by chance? (hint: think about the chance a single randomly chosen nucleotide will match another randomly chosen nucleotide)
b. Now imagine generating two random sequences, each 100 amino acids in length. In a pairwise alignment, at how many positions are they expected to match by chance?
We can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 0 or 1. However, it's worth noting that this assumes that all amino acids have an equal probability of occurring at each position, which is not necessarily true in reality.
What is Nucleotide?
A nucleotide is a small organic molecule that serves as the basic building block of nucleic acids, which are the genetic material of all living organisms. Nucleotides consist of three parts: a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar molecule, and a phosphate group.
a. For two random sequences each 100 nucleotides in length, the chance of a single nucleotide in one sequence matching a specific nucleotide in the other sequence is 1/4, since there are four possible nucleotides (A, C, G, T) at each position. Therefore, the chance of two nucleotides in the two sequences matching by chance is (1/4) x (1/4) = 1/16.
Since there are 100 positions in each sequence, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be:
100 x (1/16) = 6.25
However, since we cannot have a fraction of a match, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 6 or 7.
b. For two random sequences each 100 amino acids in length, the chance of a single amino acid in one sequence matching a specific amino acid in the other sequence depends on the number of possible amino acids that can occur at each position. There are 20 possible amino acids, so the chance of two amino acids in the two sequences matching by chance is (1/20) x (1/20) = 1/400.
Since there are 100 positions in each sequence, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be:
100 x (1/400) = 0.25
Therefore, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 0 or 1. However, it's worth noting that this assumes that all amino acids have an equal probability of occurring at each position, which is not necessarily true in reality. The actual number of matches observed in a pairwise alignment of two protein sequences will depend on the specific sequences being compared and their degree of similarity.
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Members of two different species possess a similar looking structure that they use in a similar way to perform about the same function. Which of the following would suggest that the relationship more likely represents Homology instead of convergent evolution
Two species share many proteins in common and the nucleotide sequences that code these proteins are almost identical
The fact that two species share many proteins in common and have almost identical nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins suggests that likely to represent homology rather than convergent evolution.
Homology refers to a situation where two species share a common ancestor and therefore possess similar structures as a result of their shared evolutionary history. On the other hand, convergent evolution occurs when two distantly related species develop similar structures independently in response to similar environmental pressures. Therefore, the similarity between the two species' proteins and nucleotide sequences strongly suggests that they have a recent common ancestor, making homology the more likely explanation for the similar-looking structures.
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How much of the land can be farmed?
one third
O two thirds
one half
O one fifth
The farmer has one-fifth (1/5) of the original land left for farming.
The correct option is B.
What fraction of the land is left that can be farmed?The fraction of the land left that can be farmed is calculated as follows:
Assuming that the farmer initially had 100 units of land.
So, 1/5 of the land is 100 * 1/5 = 20 units.
After the first sale, the farmer had 100 - 20 = 80 units of land left.
The second sale was 3/4 of what remained, so 3/4 of 80 units is 3/4 * 80 = 60 units.
So, the farmer can now farm 80 - 60 = 20 units of land.
Fraction left = 20/100 or 1/5
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Complete question:
A farmer sold 1/5 of his land and then sold again 3/4 of what remained. How much of the land can be farmed?
chef grace is trying to experience the taste of dolphin without actually eating dolphin. she presumes that taste is evolutionary and changes much the same way genes do. which of the following organisms should she eat based on this hypothesis?
Option b is Correct. Chef Grace aims to taste dolphin flavor without actually eating dolphin. According to this theory, she should consume bighorn sheep creatures.
She assumes that taste is an evolutionary trait that evolves in a manner similar to how genes do. Bighorn sheep are untamed creatures. Bighorn sheep have occasionally attacked people, but these incidents are uncommon. They can become defensive, especially during the rutting season, despite generally not being aggressive creatures.
They've presumably also talked about hunting bighorn sheep, too. But what you may not know is that rams and bighorn sheep are really the same thing. Bighorn sheep males are referred to as rams, thus when discussing bighorn sheep hunting, you can use either name.
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Correct Question:
Chef Grace is trying to experience the taste of dolphin without actually eating dolphin. She presumes that taste is evolutionary and changes much the same way genes do. Which of the following organisms should she eat based on this hypothesis?
A. elephant
B. bighorn sheep
C. manatee
D. lemur
E. koala
In the citric acid cycle, succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. This reaction is inhibited by malonate, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Which of the following statements best describes the role played by molecules described in the reaction? Please explain.
Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonate is the substrate in the reaction.
Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumarate is the substrate in the reaction.
Succinate is the substrate, and fumarate is the product in the reaction.
Fumarate is the product, and malonate is a noncompetitive inhibitor in the reaction.
The citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle or the tri carboxylic acid cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of cells.
What is the stopping molecule for succinate dehydrogenase ?Succinate dehydrogenase is an enzyme that plays a key role in the citric acid cycle, specifically in the conversion of succinate to fumarate. This reaction is important because it generates a molecule of FADH2, which can be used to produce ATP through the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
Therefore, the role played by molecules in this reaction is to regulate the activity of enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle. In this case, malonate acts as an inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase, which allows cells to regulate the rate of ATP production based on the availability of substrates and other cellular conditions.
This regulation is important to ensure that cells produce the appropriate amount of energy to meet their needs without wasting resources or damaging the cell.
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Phospholipids make a fluid liquid, meaning that molecules move within the membrane structure without the input of energy. Which of the following phospholipid movements require the input of energy?
A. phospholipid flipping (movement from one layer to another).
B. flexion rotation.
C. lateral diffusion
Option A is Correct. Since phospholipids produce a liquid, molecules can flow freely within the membrane structure without the need for external energy.
The following describes phospholipid flipping (transition from one layer to another). Movements of phospholipids require energy to be supplied. Since phospholipid molecules can't bunch up and form a solid due to the unsaturated hydrophobic tails, biological membranes stay fluid.
A number of pure phospholipids have been proven to change from a crystalline to a liquid crystalline state at a temperature based on the amount and type of unsaturation in the fatty acid residues using a variety of physical approaches. The interior of the cell membrane, on the other hand, is hydrophobic and does not interact with water. To effectively segregate fluid, phospholipids create a two-layer cell membrane.
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In human testing controlled experiments can be tricky and can have ethical considerations. In a controlled experiment investigators apply treatments and then observe the effect of the treatment compared to a control group that does not receive the treatment. When this is not possible investigators may rely on observational studies where investigators simply observe effects without applying any treatment, in observational studies there is no human intervention. Consider the following example In one study subjects were randomly given either a placebo or 1000 milligrams of vitamin C daily, and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season was noted. In a second study people responded to a questionnaire asking about the average number of hours they sleep per night and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season. The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second group was an observational study The first study was and observational study while the second group was an experiment. Both studies were observational studies Both studies were controlled experiments
The correct option for this question option (A) The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second group was an observational study.
In an observational research, participants are measured or surveyed without any attempt to influence them. In a controlled experiment, participants or objects are divided into groups, and one group is given a treatment while the other is not.
Experimental study, allocate treatments to groups at random so that the researchers can determine the causal (cause-and-effect) relationship. What sets apart this research is the randomization of the treatments (observational and experimental). Here, we conduct an experiment and change the subject's surroundings to assess the response (dependent) variable. The experimental study's evidence is seen as being more reliable than the observational studies.
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The complete question is:
In human testing controlled experiments can be tricky and can have ethical considerations. In a controlled experiment investigators apply treatments and then observe the effect of the treatment compared to a control group that does not receive the treatment. When this is not possible investigators may rely on observational studies where investigators simply observe effects without applying any treatment, in observational studies there is no human intervention. Consider the following example In one study subjects were randomly given either a placebo or 1000 milligrams of vitamin C daily, and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season was noted. In a second study people responded to a questionnaire asking about the average number of hours they sleep per night and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season.
A) The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second group was an observational study
B) The first study was and observational study while the second group was an experiment.
C) Both studies were observational studies
D) Both studies were controlled experiments
rj feels nervous when they hear a police car's siren and see its lights in the rearview mirror. as rj's sympathetic nervous system becomes active, their produces .
Answer:
liver produces glucose
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system initiates the 'fight or flight' response when RJ feels nervous at the sight and sound of a police car. In this state, RJ's body will produce stress hormones like adrenaline that prepare the body for action.
Explanation:When RJ hears a police car's siren and sees its lights in the rearview mirror, their sympathetic nervous system becomes active. The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system, and it's responsible for the fight or flight response, which prepares an individual for action. As such, when it becomes active, RJ's body produces various stress hormones like adrenaline (also known as epinephrine) which result in faster heart rate, increased blood pressure, dilating air passages allowing greater oxygen flow to muscles, and slowing digestion among other effects. This bodily response is natural when faced with perceived danger or stress.
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a bond for which the bonholder has the right to sell in the bond beforfe maturity at a specific date is a
A callable bond is one that allows the bondholder to sell the bond before it matures on a specified date.
A callable bond generally has a lower coupon rate than a non-callable bond with comparable terms, because the issuer assumes additional risk by agreeing to enable the bondholder to sell the bond before maturity.
When interest rates fall, issuers benefit from callable bonds because they can refinance at a reduced rate, lowering their interest expense.
Callable bonds, on the other hand, are less appealing to investors seeking stability and predictability in their income streams because they risk having their bonds called away early.
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Describe one public health topic from the American Public Health Association website that you’d like to learn more about.
Which of the following does NOT come from a seed plant? a. wooden cabins c. natural sponges b. notebook paper d. linen napkins
Answer:
Explanation:
All-natural sponges come from the sea, right? Not true. An entirely natural sponge plant grows on terra firma. The luffa (Luffa aegyptiaca) sometimes spelled loofah and nicknamed dishcloth gourd may be started from seeds and grown similarly to cucumbers and squash.
wood cabins come from trees that start off as seeds.
Notebook paper also!
Image result for do linen napkins come from seed plants
the flax plant
Technically, linen is a vegetable. Linen fabric is made from the cellulose fibers that grow inside of the stalks of the flax plant, or Linum usitatissimum, one of the oldest cultivated plants in human history.
purification of crystalline organic compounds how are insoluble impurities removed during recrystalization
To remove the insoluble impurities, the organic compound is mixed with a solvent and the resultant solution is filtered. This removes the insoluble impurities. The solution is then heated to obtain the crystals of pure organic compound by crystallization.
Crystallization is the method applied to remove the soluble impurities from the organic substances. The compound is mixed in such a solvent that the impurities dissolve with the solvent and after crystallization, the crystals obtained are of the pure organic compound.
Organic compounds are the chemical compounds that consist of one or more carbon carbon or carbon hydrogen bonds in it. These bonds are the covalent bonds which are highly strong bonds in nature.
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differentiate between transpiration, exaporation and evapotranspiration
Transpiration refers to the process of water loss through the stomata of plants, evaporation is the process of a liquid turning into a gas, while evapotranspiration is the combination of both transpiration and evaporation and refers to the total water loss from a surface.
What is Transpiration?Transpiration is the process by which water is lost from a plant through small pores called stomata. This water loss can occur through evaporation from the surface of the leaves or stems and serves to regulate the temperature of the plant and maintain water balance.
Transpiration also plays a crucial role in the movement of water and nutrients from the roots to the leaves. It is an important aspect of the water cycle and helps to redistribute water and minerals throughout the plant.
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Which of the following is/are among the functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton? (Select all that apply.) Helps in cell division Aggregates to form the nuclear envelope Transports organelles within cells Binds cells together Gives cells shape and structure
Functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton include:
Helps in cell division.
Transports organelles within cells.
Gives cells shape and structure.
What is a eukaryotic cytoskeleton?The intricate network of protein filaments and tubules that supports the structure and aids in maintaining the shape of cells is known as the eukaryotic cytoskeleton. Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules are the three main types of filamentous proteins that make up this structure. Actin-based microfilaments, which are the smallest and play a role in both cell movement and muscle contraction, are the thinnest. The thicker intermediate filaments give cells, particularly those under mechanical stress, like skin cells, mechanical strength. The biggest microtubules act as the "tracks" for cell division and organelle migration. Additionally, cellular signaling, motility, and intracellular transport are all significantly influenced by the cytoskeleton.
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Match the energy storage form on the left with its main storage location on the right (you will not need all choices available):
1. glycogen a. skeletal muscle
2. triglycerides b. brain
3. proteins c. adipose tissue
d. liver
Match the energy storage form on the left with its main storage location on the right 3. proteins c. adipose tissue
What is the primary place of bodily energy storage?Glucose is the primary source of energy for our cells. When the body does not require glucose for energy, it stores it in the liver and muscles. This stored form of glucose is known as glycogen and is made up of numerous linked glucose molecules.
However, glucose is a big molecule and is not the most effective means for the body to produce energy rapidly. Adenosine Triphosphate is the most frequent type of energy in cells (ATP).
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