The amount of protein in 200ml low-fat milk would be 6.97 g., approximately 7 g.
According to the WHO, dairy is a substantial source of superior protein and has a high level of edibility. Protein is essential for constructing and maintaining muscle mass and protecting bone tissue. Milk includes measurements of the many essential amino acids significantly in excess of international criteria due to the high nature of milk proteins (casein and whey).
So, by increasing the Kjeldahl N fixation = 6.38 (1 /15.67),
the milk protein emphasis is established in this manner.
The Kjeldahl method may not accurately reflect actual protein content or the assembling value of milk since the NPN concentration of milk can vary dramatically between groups.
A 200 ml glass of milk is thought to contain 6.97 g, or about 7 g, of protein. 3.5 g of protein are present in 100 ml of milk, for example. Hence, the protein level would be computed =
3.52 * 2 = 7 g for 200ml of low-fat milk.
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outside the body, sugar can catch fire and burn in an exergonic reaction. inside the body, we also talk about burning sugar in an exergonic reaction, but it never catches fire. why not?
When sugar (glucose) is burned outside the body, it reacts with oxygen in a highly exergonic reaction that produces energy, heat, and carbon dioxide.
This process is called combustion and is accompanied by a flame due to the rapid release of energy in the form of heat and light.
However, inside the body, the process of burning sugar (glucose) is not the same as combustion. Instead, it undergoes cellular respiration, which is a controlled series of exergonic reactions that occur in tiny steps to extract energy from glucose without creating a flame.
The enzymes in our cells facilitate this process by breaking down glucose into smaller molecules that can be used to produce ATP, the molecule that powers cellular activities. Thus, the energy is released slowly and in a controlled way, which prevents the production of heat and the risk of fire.
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Notice that a couple of things are different from the previous charts. Firstly, the derived traits and species name have switched axis. Secondly, you will see that in this chart there are derived traits that have evolved independently in different organisms. Use the principle of maximum parsimony to make a draft of the cladogram. The theory of maximum parsimony states that the simplest explanation consistent with the data should be examined first. The most parsimonious trees require the fewest evolutionary events. Construct your own cladogram using the information from the chart as a guide.
Derived Trait 1 2 4 6. 7 8. Lamprey Salmon 1 1 Tuna 1 1 1 1 Mackerel 1 1 Trout 1 1 1 1 Halibut 1 1 1 1 1 Mahi Mahi 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 Construct vour cladogram in the space below: Species 3.
The most parsimonious tree requires three evolutionary events: first the split between Lamprey and the other species, then the split between the Salmon, Tuna, and the Mackerel, and then the split between the Trout, Halibut, and Mahi Mahi.
Evolutionary is a term that refers to the process of change over time. It is based on the scientific theory of natural selection, which states that organisms that are better adapted to their environment will survive and reproduce at a higher rate than those that are not. Evolutionary change can occur over a short period of time (microevolution) or a long period of time (macroevolution).
This tree shows the evolutionary relationships between the species based on the shared derived traits.
Lamprey
|
Salmon
_________________
| |
Tuna _______________ Trout
| |
Mackerel _________ Halibut
|
Mahi Mahi
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Of all the theoretically possible statements about the Calvin Cycle, which one is impossible?
a. Glycolysis can help regenerate RuBP (ribulose biphosphate)
b. The G3P made could turn the Calvin Cycle into an amphibolic pathway
c. Three cycles of the Calvin Cycle generates one glucose molecule
d. The product of oxidative phosphorylation can be the reactant of the Calvin Cycle.
Of all the theoretically possible statements about the Calvin Cycle, the statement that glycolysis can help regenerate RuBP (ribulose biphosphate) is impossible.
What is the Calvin Cycle?The Calvin cycle, also known as the dark reaction or light-independent reaction, is a biochemical pathway in plants that aids in the production of glucose from carbon dioxide and water. During the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide is lowered and fixed by the assistance of ATP and NADPH, which are produced during the light reaction of photosynthesis.What is RuBP?RuBP stands for ribulose biphosphate, which is a molecule that is essential to the Calvin cycle. This molecule combines with carbon dioxide and is reduced in a series of enzyme-catalyzed reactions to create glucose. The regeneration of RuBP is necessary for the continuation of the Calvin cycle. However, it is not possible for glycolysis to aid in this regeneration, as the two pathways are distinct and have different functions.
What is oxidative phosphorylation?Oxidative phosphorylation is the final phase of cellular respiration, in which energy is generated by the conversion of ADP to ATP. Electrons are passed through a series of redox reactions in the electron transport chain, which results in the generation of a hydrogen ion gradient across the mitochondrial membrane. The energy from this gradient is then used to drive ATP synthesis. While it is possible for the product of oxidative phosphorylation, ATP, to be used as a reactant in the Calvin cycle, it is not possible for the reverse to occur. Glycolysis and the Calvin cycle are two separate pathways and cannot interconvert.
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how is isoelectric focusing used used to separate 2 proteins of equivalent molecular weights using sds page?
Isoelectric focusing (IEF) is a technique used to separate proteins based on their isoelectric point (pI) while SDS-PAGE is a technique used to separate proteins based on their molecular weight.
The SDS-PAGE technique is an extension of the traditional electrophoresis method that allows separation based on molecular size. SDS-PAGE is a highly useful technique, but it has certain limitations. The method is only able to distinguish proteins based on their molecular weight (MW) rather than their isoelectric point (pI). .IEF allows the separation of proteins based on their isoelectric point (pI), a property that is dependent on the number and nature of the amino acid residues in the protein molecule. The pI is the pH at which a protein has a net charge of zero, and it is unique to each protein. In IEF, proteins are separated based on their pI rather than their MW. This makes IEF highly complementary to SDS-PAGE.
However, it is possible to use a technique called isoelectric focusing (IEF) to separate two proteins with the same molecular weight. IEF can be utilized in combination with SDS-PAGE to provide highly effective protein separation .
Thus, by using IEF before SDS-PAGE, proteins that have the same MW but different pI can be separated, providing highly effective protein separation.
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A person with type O blood has _______.a. neither A nor B agglutinogensb. O antigensc. O agglutininsd. neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins
Type O blood does not contain either A or B agglutinogens. Antigens are another name for agglutinogens.
What agglutinins are present in blood types O?Plasma from people with Type O blood contains agglutinins (antibodies) a and b. Any type A blood cells that might enter the circulatory system are assisted by antibody A in being destroyed by the body. Any type B blood cells that might enter the circulation system are helped by antibody b to be destroyed by the body.
Is Type O capable of producing B agglutinin?As a result, in humans, type O has neither antigen nor agglutinin, type A has both antigens (A and B), type B has both antigens (B and A), and type AB has neither antigen nor agglutinin. also see blood typing.
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describe how two medical conditions might be helped by biofeedback therapy.
Biofeedback therapy is a type of treatment that involves using electronic monitoring equipment to provide patients with real-time feedback about their physiological responses.
By gaining awareness and control over their bodily functions, patients can learn to manage symptoms associated with certain medical conditions. Here are two examples of how biofeedback therapy can help with specific medical conditions:
Migraine headaches: Biofeedback therapy can help reduce the frequency and severity of migraine headaches. During biofeedback sessions, patients are taught to recognize the physiological signs that often precede a migraine attack, such as muscle tension and increased heart rate. By learning to recognize and control these responses, patients can reduce the intensity and frequency of migraines.
Urinary incontinence: Biofeedback therapy can help people who have difficulty controlling their bladder muscles. During biofeedback sessions, patients are taught to recognize and strengthen the pelvic floor muscles that are responsible for bladder control. By gaining control over these muscles, patients can improve bladder function and reduce urinary incontinence.
In both cases, biofeedback therapy can help patients gain greater awareness and control over their physiological responses, leading to improved symptom management and overall quality of life.
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A woman with a head injury has lost the ability to wiggle her toes. Describe how the area of the brain used for toe wiggling might be found using a CT scan.
Where does the energy come from to add a uracil to the 3' end of a transcript? the cell's supply of ATP the hydrolysis of all three phosphate groups from the incoming UTP molecule the hydrolysis of pyrophosphate from the incoming UTP molecule the hydrolysis of a terminal phosphate from the incoming UTP molecule the energy released by allowing the uracil to complementary base pair with an adjacent thymine Which one of the following RNA types is MOST abundant in mammalian cells? snRNA mRNA rRNA tRHA miRNA Which one of the following statements about RNA is CORRECT? RNA uses the same pyrimidine bases as DNA. RNA has the same 5-carbon sugars as DNA. RNA uses the same purine bases as DNA. RNA is a more stable molecule than DNA. All of these choices are correct.
The entering UTP molecule breaks down the pyrophosphate.
Where can one find uracil?The nitrogenous base uracil is one of the four found in the RNA molecule. Except for the substitution of thymine for uracil, all of these nitrogenous bases are also present in deoxyribonucleic acid, including the pyrimidine-derived uracil and cytosine, as well as the purine-derived adenine and guanine (DNA).
Why does DNA substitute thymine for uracil?DNA uses thymine rather than uracil because it offers a stronger protection against photochemical change and makes the genetic information more robust. To store all the info required for life to function, this is required.
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The graph shows the relationship between allele frequencies of two possible alleles for a gene in a population of a diploid organism. A. There is at least one point on the line where the frequency of heterozygotes will be greater than 0.50 for a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. True or false ? '
The frequency of heterozygotes will be greater than 0.50 for a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. This statement is true.
What is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium states that the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other influences.
To determine whether the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we can use the equation:
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
where,
p2 = frequency of homozygous dominant individuals
2pq = frequency of heterozygous individuals
q2 = frequency of homozygous recessive individuals and
p + q = 1.
The graph depicts the relationship between allele frequencies of two possible alleles for a gene in a population of a diploid organism, with allele A having a frequency of 0.6 and allele a having a frequency of 0.4.
Using the equation:
p2 + 2pq + q2
= (0.6)2 + 2(0.6)(0.4) + (0.4)2
= 0.36 + 0.48 + 0.16 = 1
We can see that the frequency of heterozygotes (2pq) is 0.48, which is greater than 0.50. Therefore, the statement is true.
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what does an antigen-presenting cell do to the resulting peptide fragments of a microbe once digestion is complete?
An antigen-presenting cell processes peptide fragments of a microbe into epitopes. Thus, antigen-presenting cells play a critical role in initiating adaptive immune responses to microbial pathogens.
Epitopes are small regions of the peptide that can be recognized by T cells in the immune system. An antigen-presenting cell (APC) is a type of cell in the immune system that displays antigen complexes with major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs) on their surfaces to T cells. This process is called antigen presentation. Antigen-presenting cells include dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells. APCs have a critical role in initiating and regulating immune responses. T cells are responsible for recognizing epitopes presented by antigen-presenting cells. Antigen-presenting cells process peptide fragments of microbes into epitopes. Epitopes are small regions of the peptide that can be recognized by T cells in the immune system. T cells only recognize epitopes that are bound to MHC molecules on antigen-presenting cells. MHCs are essential for presenting epitopes to T cells, which recognize them through their T cell receptor.
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Place the following events in the correct order in which thy occur in the Calvin cycle, beginning at the top with the carbon fixation step.
A. The 6-carbon molecule splits to form PGA.
B. Some PGAL is converted into glucose and other sugars, and some PGAL is converted back to RuBP.
C. PGA is converted into PGAL.
D. The enzyme rubisco combines carbon dioxide with RuBP to form a 6-carbon unstable molecule.
The correct order of events in Calvin cycle is: D, A, C, and Calvin cycle starts with the enzyme Rubisco combines carbon dioxide with RuBP to form a 6-carbon unstable molecule.
What is the Calvin cycle?The Calvin cycle is the process by which carbon dioxide is fixed in photosynthesis. The Calvin cycle is part of the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis. Following are the events in the correct order in which they occur in the Calvin cycle, beginning at the top with the carbon fixation step:
Step 1: The enzyme rubisco combines carbon dioxide with RuBP to form a 6-carbon unstable molecule.
Step 2: The 6-carbon molecule splits to form PGA.
Step 3: PGA is converted into PGAL.
Step 4: Some PGAL is converted into glucose and other sugars, and some PGAL is converted back to RuBP.
Thus, the correct order of the events in the Calvin cycle is given as: D. The enzyme rubisco combines carbon dioxide with RuBP to form a 6-carbon unstable molecule, A. The 6-carbon molecule splits to form PGA, C. PGA is converted into PGAL, and B. Some PGAL is converted into glucose and other sugars, and some PGAL is converted back to RuBP.
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Transgenic animals are currently produced for many different reasons. Choose an example of a transgenic animal that currently does not exist.1.chickens that have been modified to be able to lay eggs in very hot temperatures2.pigs that carry a roundworm gene to produce omega-3 fatty acids3.dairy cows that carry an Angus cattle gene so that they do not grow horns4.Atlantic salmon that have been modified to grow twice as fast as normal
An example of a transgenic animal that currently does not exist would be Atlantic salmon that have been modified to grow twice as fast as normal. the option 4. is correct .
Transgenic animals are those animals that have been genetically modified by the insertion of one or more genes from another organism into their DNA. With the assistance of genetic engineering methods, the genes of an organism can be changed to produce animals that have new, advantageous characteristics.
The Atlantic salmon that have been modified to grow twice as fast as normal is an example of a transgenic animal that does exist. Some of the other transgenic animals that exist or have been developed are:
1. Enviropig: Transgenic pigs with a bacterial gene inserted that enables them to better digest phosphorus, reducing the amount of phosphorus-contaminated waste they produce.
2. Glo Fish: Transgenic zebrafish with a fluorescent gene inserted that makes them glow in the dark.
3. Anti-cancer mice: Transgenic mice with a gene that suppresses the growth of cancer cells, which can be used to study cancer treatment alternative.
4. Spider-goat: Transgenic goats with a spider gene inserted that allows them to produce spider silk in their milk. The chickens that have been modified to lay eggs in very hot temperatures, pigs that carry a roundworm gene to produce omega-3 fatty acids, and dairy cows that carry an Angus cattle gene.
So that they do not grow horns are examples of transgenic animals that currently do not exist. Therefore, option 4. is correct .
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an atom of mystery element contains 92 protons. what element is it?
An atom of a mystery element contains 92 protons. This element is uranium (U). It has 92 protons and an atomic number of 92, which is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of protons in its nucleus. In this case, there are 92 protons in the nucleus of the mystery element. Uranium is the element that has an atomic number of 92 since it has 92 protons in its nucleus.
Uranium is a chemical element with the symbol U and atomic number 92. It is a silvery-grey metal in the actinide series of the periodic table. A uranium atom has 92 protons and 92 electrons, of which 6 are valence electrons. It is a dense metal that is silvery-white in color when polished.
The term "uranium" refers to the element in both the natural and artificial contexts. Uranium is radioactive, as are all other elements with atomic numbers above 84. Uranium is a fuel for nuclear power plants and weapons due to its high radioactivity.
Uranium ore is found in large quantities in the Earth's crust and can be mined to produce uranium fuel for nuclear power plants.
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the central dogma of molecular biology is that information is transferred from
The central dogma of molecular biology is that the information is transferred from DNA to proteins via the RNA.
DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic Acid. It is genetic ,material in majority of the organisms. The DNA is a double stranded structure with phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar and four types of nucleotides: adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil.
Proteins are the main function unit of the genetic information present in DNA. The proteins are biomolecules formed by the monomeric unit called amino acids. The proteins are involved in every process inside the body. The formation of protein from the m-RNA takes place in the ribosomes.
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Dominant females usually allow males to mate with them more than subordinate females. True or False
Answer:
This statement is False. In many animal species, dominant females have priority access to mates and may actively exclude subordinate females from mating with males. This behavior is known as female mate choice and is often observed in species with a polygynous mating system. In some cases, dominant females may also engage in mate guarding behavior to prevent subordinate females from mating with the same males. However, the specific mating behaviors of a species can vary greatly depending on factors such as social structure, ecology, and reproductive biology.
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when most populations of a wide-ranging amphibian species are lost and the few remaining populations are widely separated, we expect to see that . read the following scenario to answer the following question. over the past 60 years, many amphibian species have experienced significant population declines, and some species have become extinct. scientists suspected that local human activities such as the destruction of wetlands, regional pollution, and deforestation were the main reasons for these losses. however, research over the past 20 years reveals significant amphibian population declines in protected areas of the world, such as nature preserves and parks. these global declines suggest widespread problems including increased ultraviolet radiation, acid rain, and disease. in switzerland, for example, 14 of the 20 native amphibian species are threatened with extinction. when most populations of a wide-ranging amphibian species are lost and the few remaining populations are widely separated, we expect to see that . artificial selection becomes a greater factor in microevolution gene flow between populations is reduced microevolution no longer occurs the founder effect becomes increasingly important
When most populations of a wide-ranging amphibian species are lost, and the few remaining populations are widely separated, we expect to see that the founder effect becomes increasingly important.
The founder effect is when a few individuals of a species colonize an isolated area and become the founders of a new population. This new population can have different genetic characteristics than the original population, leading to different levels of gene flow, selection pressures, and other microevolutionary processes.
As the population size of the species decreases, the founder effect becomes increasingly important in shaping the gene pool and populations of the species.
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It is estimated that zinc binds to about ______ of all proteins in the body. please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer buttona. 5%b. 10%c. 15%d. 20%
Zinc is estimated to bind to about 10% of all proteins in the human body. So, the correct answer is letter b.
Facts about zincZinc is a micronutrient that is essential for the growth and development of the body. It helps to regulate the immune system, support healthy growth during childhood and help to maintain healthy skin, hair, and nails.
Zinc plays a critical role in protein synthesis, which is the process of building proteins in the body. It is estimated that zinc binds to about 10% of all proteins in the human body. Zinc is an important mineral that the human body needs to stay healthy. It is involved in many different functions throughout the body, including immune system function, DNA synthesis, and protein synthesis. Overall, zinc is an essential nutrient that plays a vital role in the overall health and well-being of the human body.
Therefore the correct choice is the letter "b".
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Which of these is NOT an accessory structure of the skin?a. sebaceous glandsb. hairc. hair folliclesd. dermis
The D. Dermis is just not regarded as a skin accessory structure. The dermis, a true layer of skin beneath the epidermis, is home to many of the skin's auxiliary structures, including hair follicles, sebaceous glands, & sudoriferous sweat glands.
The skin also has hair, nails, sweat glands, & sebaceous glands as auxiliary structures. Melanin pigments give hair its colour, which it is comprised of dead keratinized cells. Our fingers and toes' extremities are shielded from mechanical harm by our nails, which are also formed of dead keratinized cells. The skin also has hair, nails, sweat glands, & sebaceous glands as auxiliary structures. These organs embryologically develop from the epidermis and also can descend into the hypodermis through the dermis.
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the accumulation of reabsorbed fluid on the basal side of the epithelial cells creates a high tissue fluid pressure that drives water ______ the peritubular capillaries.
The accumulation of reabsorbed fluid on the basal side of the epithelial cells creates a high tissue fluid pressure that drives water into the peritubular capillaries.
In the process of urine formation, the kidneys filter blood plasma to remove waste products and excess water, ions, and nutrients. These filtered substances are then reabsorbed by the renal tubules, which are lined by epithelial cells. The reabsorption of fluid and solutes from the tubules creates a concentration gradient that drives the movement of water and solutes across the epithelial cells and into the interstitial fluid.
The accumulation of reabsorbed fluid on the basal side of the epithelial cells creates a high hydrostatic pressure that drives water back into the blood vessels surrounding the tubules, called peritubular capillaries. This process is essential for maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance in the body.
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Maras dad breeds chameleons of different colors. The bright green chameleons are the best sellers. Therefore, he purposefully breeds the bright green ones together to reproduce as many as possible. This is an example of
Mara's dad is purposefully breeding the bright green ones together to reproduce as many as possible, this is an example of artificial selection.
Mara's father raises chameleons of various colours. The most popular chameleons are those that are vivid green. He deliberately crosses the bright green ones to produce as many offspring as he can.
Artificial selection can be seen in this situation.
It is the marking of attractive characteristics in plants and animals by humans, as well as the actions taken to enhance and perpetuate such characteristics in subsequent generations.
Let's define artificial selection. Artificial selection, often known as "selective breeding," occurs when humans choose desirable qualities in animals or agricultural byproducts rather than allowing the species to evolve naturally, as in natural selection.
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Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane?A) epidermis, hypodermis, dermisB) dermis, epidermis, hypodermisC) epidermis, dermis, hypodermisD) hypodermis, dermis, epidermisE) dermis, hypodermis, dermis
The correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane is Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis.
Cutaneous membrane is made up of three layers. They are the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue, also known as the hypodermis. These layers are listed in order from the surface to the deepest layer.
Epidermis: It is the outermost layer of the skin. This layer includes the stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basale. The epidermis serves to safeguard the body against bacterial, viral, and other foreign substances and also to prevent water from leaving the body.
Dermis: The dermis is the second layer of the skin that lies beneath the epidermis. The dermis layer contains hair follicles, blood vessels, lymph vessels, nerves, and sweat glands. It also contains collagen fibers and elastic fibers that are responsible for skin elasticity and strength.
Hypodermis: Subcutaneous tissue, also known as hypodermis, is the deepest layer of skin. It contains adipose tissue, blood vessels, and nerves. This layer assists in maintaining body temperature and energy storage.
Therefore, the correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane is Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis.
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what process does the body use to turn food into energy?
The process in which your body converts food into energy is called metabolism.
Metabolism is the set of chemical processes that occur within a living organism to maintain life. It involves the conversion of nutrients into energy and the synthesis and breakdown of molecules for various biological functions. The two types of metabolic processes are catabolism and anabolism. Catabolism is the breakdown of molecules to release energy, while anabolism is the synthesis of molecules from simpler substances.
Metabolism is essential for sustaining life as it provides energy for cellular activities, maintains homeostasis, and supports growth and development. The rate of metabolism is influenced by various factors such as age, sex, genetics, diet, and physical activity. Disorders of metabolism can lead to various diseases such as diabetes, obesity, and metabolic syndrome.
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plants in the mustard family produce a unique kind of dehiscent fruits called that split along two side seams and bear seeds on a central partition or membrane. when these fruits are less than three times as long as they are wide, they are called
Plants in the Mustard Family produce a unique kind of dehiscent fruits called siliques that split along two side seams and bear seeds on a central partition or membrane. When these fruits are less than three times as long as they are wide, they are called silicles.
Siliques are defined as fruits that are long, narrow, and cylindrical in shape, with two chambers separated by a membranous septum bearing seeds attached to the central partition. They are elongated, tapered fruits that typically have a length that is more than three times their width. Plants in the mustard family, or Brassicaceae, produce siliques.
A silicle is a type of fruit that is shorter and broader than a silique, less than three times as long as it is wide, and that splits open along two side seams to reveal a central partition or septum-bearing seeds. It is a dry fruit that is similar to a capsule, and the fruits produced by many members of the Brassicaceae family are considered to be silicles rather than siliques when they are shorter than three times their width.
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which cellular structure is responsible for helping to form the covalent bond between amino acids during the polymerization of a polypeptide/protein?
The ribosome is the cellular structure that is responsible for helping to form the covalent bond between amino acids during the polymerization of a polypeptide/protein.
A ribosome is a cell structure that functions in the synthesis of protein. Ribosomes can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, including animal cells, plant cells, and bacterial cells. Ribosomes are often associated with the endoplasmic reticulum, a network of membranes in the cell. They are made up of two subunits, one small and one large.
Each ribosome subunit contains a variety of ribosomal proteins and a specific type of ribosomal RNA (rRNA), which are ribosomal components. The ribosome's primary function is to connect amino acids together to form a protein chain, which is then folded into a particular shape, depending on the protein.
During protein synthesis, amino acids are supplied to the ribosome and connected by peptide bonds. This method of protein synthesis is known as translation, and it occurs on the ribosome.
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which component is not directly involved with transcription? group of answer choices trna mrna dna rutp
Answer: The component that is not directly involved with transcription is RUTP. RNA Uracil Triphosphate (RUTP) is a cofactor used in the synthesis of proteins but is not directly involved in the process of transcription.
Explanation: Transcription is the process in which genetic information encoded in DNA is used to create messenger RNA (mRNA). This process is an important step in the production of proteins, which are essential for the growth, development, and function of all living organisms.
The steps involved in the transcription process are as follows:
Initiation: RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of DNA and starts transcribing the DNA molecule.
Elongation: RNA polymerase reads the DNA sequence and synthesizes a complementary RNA strand.
Termination: RNA polymerase stops synthesizing RNA when it reaches a terminator sequence, which marks the end of the gene.
The components involved in transcription are as follows:
mRNA (messenger RNA): This is the RNA molecule that carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosome.
TRNA (transfer RNA): This is the RNA molecule that carries amino acids to the ribosome, where they are assembled into a protein.
RNA polymerase: This is the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template.
Ribosomes: These are the cellular structures where protein synthesis occurs.
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid): DNA stores the genetic code that is used to synthesize RNA, which, in turn, is used to synthesize proteins.
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Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affectA) the cell wall.B) the cell membrane.C) the viral envelope.D) endospores.E) protein synthesis.
Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect the viral envelope. So the correct answer is option C.
Nucleic acids are molecules that carry the genetic information of living organisms. These are found in the form of DNA and RNA. Antimicrobial agents target nucleic acids and disrupt their function leading to inhibition or destruction of the cell. However, the viral envelope is not made of nucleic acids. It is the outermost layer of the virus that protects the genetic material inside. Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect the viral envelope by disrupting the integrity of the membrane that holds the virus together.
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Based on the video and what you know about natural selection, which of the following must be true if evolution is the explanation for what the Grants have observed over time on Daphne? Select all that apply.All organisms are descended from one or a few common ancestors. [ Select ] ["yes", "no"]Characteristics acquired during the life of an individual are passed on to its offspring. [ Select ] ["yes", "no"]
Heritable variations occur in natural populations. [ Select ] ["yes", "no"]
Life has a long evolutionary history. [ Select ] ["yes", "no"]
Species are not fixed but change over time. [ Select ] ["yes", "no"]
The answer is Yes
All organisms are descended from one or a few common ancestors. [yes]
Characteristics acquired during the life of an individual are passed on to its offspring. [no]
Heritable variations occur in natural populations. [yes]
Life has a long evolutionary history. [yes]
Species are not fixed but change over time. [yes]
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The masseter is innervated by the ______ branch of the trigeminal nerve. a. mandibular b. ophthalmic c. lingual d. maxillary.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
It is a branch of the mandibular nerve
Summarize how the fossil cetacean ancestors changed over time. Give at least one example of a specific trait and how it changed
The cetacean ancestors, which were land-dwelling mammals, changed over time through a series of evolutionary adaptations that eventually led to their transformation into aquatic animals such as whales, dolphins, and porpoises.
One of the key changes involved the evolution of their limbs, which gradually transformed into flippers for efficient swimming. Over time, their nostrils moved from the front of their snouts to the top of their heads, forming blowholes, allowing them to breathe while swimming. Another change was the development of a streamlined body shape, reducing drag and making swimming more efficient. One specific trait that changed was their teeth. The earliest cetacean ancestors had teeth similar to their land mammal ancestors, but over time, their teeth became more specialized for hunting and capturing prey underwater, with some species losing teeth entirely and developing baleen instead.
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name two special sense whose receptor are replaces throughout life and two special senses whose receptors cells are replaces so slowly that there can be no functional regeneration
Special senses whose receptors are replaced throughout life are smell and taste, whereas special senses whose receptor cells are replaced so slowly that there can be no functional regeneration are vision and hearing.
What are special senses?Special senses are the five senses, including vision, hearing, taste, smell, and touch, that are used to identify and respond to specific environmental stimuli that influence our perceptions, thoughts, and actions. These senses aid us in receiving input from the environment in order to survive, communicate, and interact with the world around us.
Special senses are critical to our survival and are often more complex than general senses, such as touch, pressure, pain, and temperature. Special senses include senses that rely on specialized receptor cells located in specific organs, including the eyes, ears, nose, tongue, and skin.
The human body's special senses are unique in that they are capable of detecting very distinct environmental stimuli, including light, sound, chemicals, and temperature. Each special sense relies on a specific type of receptor cell to receive and transmit environmental signals to the brain. These cells are typically located in specialized organs, such as the retina in the eyes, the hair cells in the inner ear, and the taste buds on the tongue.
Special senses whose receptors are replaced throughout life are smell and taste. Special senses whose receptor cells are replaced so slowly that there can be no functional regeneration are vision and hearing.
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