Cómo chica quiere armar sus propios lindos para una galería de arte los cuadros deben ser de forma cuadrada así que todos los lados deben de medir los mismos y una amiga le donó dos trozos de madera de 128 cm y 224 cm respectivamente qué tan grande es podrían ser los lados sin que sobre madera?

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  u = -3 3/7

Step-by-step explanation:

The new value of v is 4/-7 = -4/7 of the old value. Because u varies directly, its new value will also be -4/7 of the old value.

  u = -4/7(6) = -24/7

  u = -3 3/7

Answer:

the angle would be 64°

Step-by-step explanation:

since the other angle is already 296° having the other angle would add to complete the 360 degrees of the circle

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

64 because you subtract 360 by 296

Using the dot plot, it is found that a typical amount of chocolate chips in one of Shawn's cookies is around 4.56.

The dot plot is a graph shows the number of times each measure appears in the data-set.

Researching this problem on the internet, the dot plot states that:

The mean is given by:

M = (2 x 2 + 2 x 3 + 5 x 4 + 4 x 5 + 3 x 6 + 2 x 7)/(2 + 2 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2) = 4.56.

Hence, a typical amount of chocolate chips in one of Shawn's cookies is around 4.56.

More can be learned about dot plots at https://brainly.com/question/24912483

Answer:

5 chocolate chips

Step-by-step explanation:

did on khan

Answer:

C.

Step-by-step explanation:

When you replace x with x - h, the graph shifts h units horizontally.

Here, x is replaced by x - 12.

Compare x - 12 to x - h.

h = 12

The graph shifts 12 units to the right.

Answer:

answer maybe A..not sure but it might be in my opinion..

Answer: 10 in

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I'm pretty sure it would be base x height divided by 2 so 20×6÷2

Answer:

ans: ln (5/8) , ln5 - ln8

Step-by-step explanation:

8e^x -5 = 0

e^x = 5/8

x = ln (5/8)

x = ln5 - ln8

Answer:

x=5

y=0

Step-by-step explanation:

KL = JM

3x-y = 15

and JK = LM

4x -4y = 20

Divide this equation by 4

x-y= 5

Multiply by -1

-x+y =-5

Add this to the first equation

3x-y = 15

-x+y =-5

-----------------

2x = 10

Divide by 2

2x/2 = 10/2

x =5

x-y = 5

5-y = 5

-y = 0

y =0

Answer:

x=5,y=0

Step-by-step explanation:

KL=JM [Opposite sides of rectangle are equal]

3x-y=15-> eq 1

JK=LM

4x-4y=20

=>4(x-y)=20

=>x-y=5-> eq 2

From eq 1 and 2,

   3x-y=15

     x-y=5

=>2x=10

=>x=5

x-y=5

y=x-5

=>y=5-5

=>y=0

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  A.  y = 3^-x +1

Step-by-step explanation:

Reflection across the y-axis replaces x with -x. The reflected curve is described by ...

  y = 3^-x +1 . . . . matches choice A

Answer:

315 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

the surface area is the sum of the areas of all the individual shapes in the surface.

so, we have the 2 triangular bases and 3 rectangles as is sides.

the area of a rectangular triangle is a×b/2

we need them twice, so that is then a×b

a=4.5

b=6

a×b = 27 in²

one rectangle is 16×7.5 = 120 in²

one rectangle is 16×6 = 96 in²

one rectangle is 16×4.5 = 72 in²

total surface area is therefore

A = 27+120+96+72 = 315 in²

9514 1404 393

Explanation:

In a cyclic quadrilateral, opposite angles are supplementary. This means ...

  A + C = 180°   ⇒   A/2 +C/2 = 90°   ⇒   C/2 = 90° -A/2

  B + D = 180°   ⇒   B/2 +D/2 = 90°   ⇒   D/2 = 90° -B/2

It is a trig identity that ...

  tan(α) = cot(90° -α)

so we have ...

  tan(A/2) = cot(90° -A/2) = cot(C/2)

and

  tan(B/2) = cot(90° -B/2) = cot(D/2)

Adding these two equations together gives the desired result:

  tan(A/2) +tan(B/2) = cot(C/2) +cot(D/2)

Answer:

12.2

Step-by-step explanation:

2.3%= 0.023

So that is the probability that it will be over 13.2 oz, or .977 is the prob that it will be below 13.2

z-score = (real score - mean)/standard deviation

I found .977 at a z-score of 2.00

so 2.00 = (13.2-m)/0.5

=> m=12.2

Step-by-step explanation:

simplify

8 add (12 subtract 5)

Step-by-step explanation:

13) Second angle (side shared)

14) Second side (one side shared)

15) Second side (angles where they meet are equal)

16) Second angle (one angle equal cause of a rule)

17) Third side

18) Second side

Answer:

Set of alternative optimal solution : 0 ≤ z ≤ 1.5

Hence There will be an infinite set of Alternative optimal solution

Step-by-step explanation:

considering Cx1 = 4

∴ C = 4 / x1

Cx2 = 6

∴ 4x2 - 6x1  = 0

2x2 - 3x1 = 0 ------ ( 1 )

considering Cx3 = 6

C = 6/x3

Cx4 = 3

∴ (6/x3) x4 - 3 = 0

= 2x4 - x3 = 0 ---- ( 2 )

attached below is the remaining part of the solution

set of alternative optimal solution : 0 ≤ z ≤ 1.5

There will be an infinite set of Alternative optimal solution

Answer:

I believe it is 90

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not so sure but when finding the area of a shape you times all those lengths together.

Answer: There is NO answer because there is some missing information!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

HK = 24

Step-by-step explanation:

HK and JL are diagonals of the parallelogram.

Recall that diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other. This implies that, they divide each other into equal parts.

Therefore,

HK = 2(HM)

HM = 12

Thus,

HK = 2(12)

HK = 24

Answer:

(b) For each hour that Michelle drove, she traveled an additional 50 miles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex](x_1,y_1) = (0,350)[/tex] ---- start

[tex](x_2,y_2) = (7,0)[/tex] --- end

Required

Which is true

(a): Journey = 6 hours

This is false, because:

[tex]x = x_2 - x_1[/tex]

[tex]x = 7-0[/tex]

[tex]x = 7[/tex] ---- 7 hours

(b): The average rate is 50 miles per hour

To do this, we calculate the slope (m) using:

[tex]m = \frac{y_2 -y_1}{x_2- x_1}[/tex]

[tex]m = \frac{0 - 350}{7-0}[/tex]

[tex]m = -\frac{350}{7}[/tex]

[tex]m = -50[/tex]

This means that the rate is 50 miles driven in 1 hour.

(b) is correct

Others are incorrect

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

I did it

Answer:

47

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

hi, the answer is 47°

Step-by-step explanation:

68+135+110=313 360-313=47

Answer:

-1 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the mean, add up all the numbers

(-4+-3+-1+-1+0+1) =

-8

Then divide by the number of terms

-8/6

-4/3

-1  1/3

Answer A is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

let the expression of the equation be :

x+y=0

x²+y²= 5

hope it is helpful to you

Answer:

From the values obtained, we can see that after the initial 10mg/L values obtained in the first 1 and 2 minutes, the concentration has been dipping and it will continue to do so.

Step-by-step explanation:

The concentration monitored ar time, t > 0 is represented by :

C(t) = 30t / (t² + 2.)

At, t = 1

C(1) = 30(1) / (1 + 2) = 30/3 = 10

At t = 2

C(2) = 30(2) / (2² + 2) = 60/(4+2) = 60/6 = 10

At t = 3

C(3) = 30(3) / (3² + 2) = 90/ 11 = 8.18

At t = 4

C(4) = 30(4) / (4²+2) = 120/18 = 6.67

At t = 5

C(5) = 30(5) / (5²+2) = 150/ 27 = 5.55

At t = 10

C(10) = 30(10) / (10²+2) = 300/102 = 2.94

From the values obtained, we can see that after the initial 10mg/L values obtained in the first 1 and 2 minutes, the concentration has been dipping and it will continue to do so.

I'll focus on problem 2.

For these types of problems, I recommend graphing the functions to see how the end behavior looks.

The graph of y = x^2 has a parabola where both endpoints aim upward. So each end goes to positive infinity (regardless if x is going to positive or negative infinity).

In short, the graph rises to the left and it rises to the right.

Increasing the leading coefficient will not change this fact. We can pick any leading coefficient we want and the end behavior will stay the same. All that matters is the leading coefficient is positive.

If the leading coefficient becomes negative, then everything flips: the endpoints will aim down. The other terms we add on (such as a 3x+3) will not change the end behavior. The leading term, with the largest exponent, is what directly and solely determines the end behavior.

The graph is shown below. I used GeoGebra to make the graph. Desmos is another handy tool you could use.

Answer:

£8520

Step-by-step explanation:

1 Bahraini dinar = £2.13

Multiply both sides of the equation by 4000.

4000 * 1 Bahraini dinar = 4000 * £2.13

4000 Bahraini dinar = £8520

Answer:6

Step-by-step explanation:

265-25

240/4

6

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanai  o

n:

265 -25=  240

240/4=6 0

Answer:

I need points

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Music Mart offers a better deal, given that the price of the guitar is $ 219 compared to $ 279.20 for Guitar Central.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since Tania is buying a guitar, and Guitar Central has 20% off coupons available, and has the guitar Tania wants for $ 349, while Music Mart has the guitar Tania wants for $ 419, but is offering a $ 200 rebate, to determine which is the better deal the following calculations must be performed:

Guitar Central

100 - 20 = 80

349 x 0.8 = X

279.20 = X

Music mart

419 - 200 = X

219 = X

Therefore, Music Mart offers a better deal, given that the price of the guitar is $ 219 compared to $ 279.20 for Guitar Central.

Answer:

12.3 Gallons

Step-by-step explanation:

Options of the question:-

Option A. 12.33 gallons

Option B. 10 gallons

Option C. 12 gallons

Option D. 12.3 gallons

Option D is the answer :-

As the least count or zero error is 0.1 so it can measure only upto one decimal place so answer will be 12.3

Answer:

0.1587 = 15.87% probability that the average fracture strength of 100 randomly selected pieces of this glass exceeds 14.2.

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the normal probability distribution and the central limit theorem.

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Central Limit Theorem

The Central Limit Theorem establishes that, for a normally distributed random variable X, with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the sampling distribution of the sample means with size n can be approximated to a normal distribution with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}[/tex].

For a skewed variable, the Central Limit Theorem can also be applied, as long as n is at least 30.

The fracture strength of tempered glass averages 14 (measured in thousands of pounds per square inch) and has standard deviation 2.

This means that [tex]\mu = 14, \sigma = 2[/tex]

Sample of 100:

This means that [tex]n = 100, s = \frac{2}{\sqrt{100}} = 0.2[/tex]

What is the probability that the average fracture strength of 100 randomly selected pieces of this glass exceeds 14.2?

This is 1 subtracted by the p-value of Z when X = 14.2. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

By the Central Limit Theorem

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{14.2 - 14}{0.2}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1[/tex] has a p-value of 0.8413.

1 - 0.8413 = 0.1587

0.1587 = 15.87% probability that the average fracture strength of 100 randomly selected pieces of this glass exceeds 14.2.