Convert 8 miles into kilometers. Round your answer to the nearest tenth.

Let the digit in one's place be y and digit at ten's place be x.

Sum of the digits = 11

⟶ x + y = 11

⟶ x = 11 - y -- equation (1).

And,

The number formed by reversing the digits is 27 more than the original number.

⟶ Reversed number = Original number + 27

reversed number = 10y + x.

⟶ 10y + x = 10x + y + 27

⟶ 10y + x - 10x - y = 27

⟶ 9y - 9x = 27

Substitute the value x from equation (1).

⟶ 9y - 9(11 - y) = 27

⟶ 9y - 99 + 9y = 27

⟶ 18y = 27 + 99

⟶ 18y = 126

⟶ y = 126/18

⟶ y = 7

Substitute the value of y in equation (1).

⟶ x = 11 - 7

⟶ x = 4

The number = 10(4) + 7 = 40 + 7 = 47.

∴ The required two digit number is 47.

I hope it will help you.

Regards.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

League A                   League B

151.12                            163.25

148                                157

26.83                             24.93

29                                  136

136                                145

167                                178

207                               256

League A in ascending order :

26.83 , 29 , 136, 148 , 151.12 , 167,207

[tex]Mean = \frac{\text{Sum of all observations}}{\text{No. of observations}}\\\\Mean = \frac{26.83+29 +136+ 148+ 151.12+ 167+207}{7}\\\\Mean =123.564[/tex]

Median = Mid value of data

n = 7

So, mid value = 4th term

Median=148

Standard deviation=[tex]\sqrt{\frac{\sum(x_i-\bar{x})^2}{n}}[/tex]=[tex]=\sqrt{\frac{(26.83-123.564)^2+(29-123.564)^2+.......+(207-123.564)^2}{7}}=63.98[/tex]

To Find Q1

Q1 is the mid value of lower quartile

Lower quartile : 26.83 , 29 , 136, 148

n = 4

Q1=82.5

To Find Q3

Q3 is the mid value of upper quartile

Upper quartile : 148 , 151.12 , 167,207

n = 4

Q3=159.06

IQR = Q3-Q1=159.06-82.5=76.56

To find outlier

(Q1-1.5IQR ,Q3+1.5IQR)

[tex](82.5-1.5\times 76.56,159.06+1.5\times 76.56)[/tex]

(-32.34,273.9)

So, There is no outlier

Maximum = 207

2)

League B in ascending order :

24.93,136,145,157,163.25,178,256

[tex]Mean = \frac{\text{Sum of all observations}}{\text{No. of observations}}\\\\Mean = \frac{24.93+136+145+157+163.25+178+256}{7}\\\\Mean =151.45[/tex]

Median = Mid value of data

n = 7

So, mid value = 4th term

Median=157

Standard deviation=[tex]\sqrt{\frac{\sum(x_i-\bar{x})^2}{n}}[/tex]=[tex]=\sqrt{\frac{(24.93-151.45)^2+(136-151.45)^2+.......+(256-151.45)^2}{7}}=68.42[/tex]

To Find Q1

Q1 is the mid value of lower quartile

Lower quartile : 24.93,136,145,157

n = 4

[tex]Median = \frac{\frac{n}{2} \text{th term}+(\frac{n}{2}+1) \text{th term}}{2}\\Median = \frac{\frac{4}{2} \text{th term}+(\frac{4}{2}+1) \text{th term}}{2}\\Median = \frac{2 \text{th term}+3 \text{th term}}{2}\\Median = \frac{136+145}{2}=140.5[/tex]

Q1=140.5

To Find Q3

Q3 is the mid value of upper quartile

Upper quartile : 157,163.25,178,256

n = 4

Q3=170.625

IQR = Q3-Q1=170.625-140.5=30.125

To find outlier

(Q1-1.5IQR ,Q3+1.5IQR)

[tex](140.5-1.5\times 30.125,170.625+1.5\times 30.125)[/tex]

(95.3125,215.8125)

24.93 and 256 are outliers  

Maximum = 256

Answer:

1/6 or 16 %

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

We know that

November has 30 days, which means 4 weeks and 2 days.

Step-by-step explanation:

Now, 4 weeks will contain 4 Sunday.

The remaining 2 days may be :

1. Sunday and Monday

2. Monday and Tuesday

3. Tuesday and Wednesday

4. Wednesday and Thursday

5. Thursday and Friday

6. Friday and Saturday

7. Saturday and Sunday

Total number of possible outcomes = 7

Now, favourable outcomes are : Sunday and Monday, Saturday and Sunday

Number of favourable outcomes = 2

Required probability (P)= Number of favourable outcomes /Total number of possible outcomes

P = 2/7

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I think 7.2

Step-by-step explanation:

I multiply .6 to 12 and got that

Answer:

y o = 2 sin ( π/6 ) = 2 * 1/2 = 1

x o = π / 6

y ` = 2 cos x = 2 cos (π/6) = 2 * √3 / 2 = √ 3;

m = √3

An equation of the tangent line is:

y - y o = m ( x - x o )

Answer:

y - 1 = √3 ( x - π/6 )

Step-by-step explanation

please give me brainliest     hope it helps

Answer:

17 is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2.4

Step-by-step explanation:

20 characters nsnsjnsjs

Answer:

Subtract 6.13ft from 6.57ft, and you should get .44 as your answer.

Answer:

i hate biden

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

your answer is 15.6

Step-by-step explanation:

5x divided by 3= 26

multiply 3 by each side

5x = 78

divide 5 by each side to get x by itself

x= 15.6

Answer:

[tex](x + 9)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] {x}^{2} + 12x + 27[/tex]

[tex](x {}^{2} + 3x) + (9x + 27)[/tex]

[tex]x(x + 3) + 9(x + 3)[/tex]

[tex](x + 3)(x + 9)[/tex]

[tex] \red { \orange {\boxed {\boxed{\star Option \: 1 \star}}}}[/tex]

#IfWrongPleaseReport

#StudyTogetherWithMe

#ILoveMath

Answer:

I'm pretty sure that A is right.

Step-by-step explanation:

They share a side, making them equal.  It is also shown that RQ and SR are equal.  This means that, for SAS, all you need is the angle in between them.

I hope this helps!

Answer:

The information that was collected by each of the four methods is;

The participant's favorite coach of the Dallas Cowboys.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each of the four methods listed, the question that stood out was the favorite coach of the Dallas Cowboys among the participants in the study.

Questionnaire: one of the questions was, who is your favorite coach of the Dallas cowboys?

Interview: I asked him which coach was his favorite

Observation: I knew he was kidding because he had a smirk on his face. This observation showed that Barry Switzer was not really his favorite coach.

Historical data:  I asked him which coach was his favorite and he said, "Barry Switzer because he was the last one to win a championship." This historical data shows that the reason why Barry Switzer was chosen as the researcher's favorite coach was that he was the last to win a championship.

Answer:

Something like 15/16 page per minute.

Step-by-step explanation:

Tell me if I am wrong.

Answer:

By rounding up of the constant and coefficient terms, we have;

The line of best, fit is y = 1.23 + 3.46 × 10⁻²·x

Step-by-step explanation:

The table for the data on the number of movie admissions each year is presented as follows;

Year, x                                             [tex]{}[/tex]                      Admission, y

0                                                      [tex]{}[/tex]                         1.24

2                                                       [tex]{}[/tex]                        1.26

4                                                      [tex]{}[/tex]                         1.39

6                                                      [tex]{}[/tex]                         1.47

8                                                      [tex]{}[/tex]                         1.49

10                                                      [tex]{}[/tex]                        1.57

Using a graphing calculator, we have that the line of best fit is given by the following equation;

y = 1.23047619048 + 3.45714285714 × 10⁻²·x

Which is approximately, y = 1.23 + 3.46 × 10⁻²·x

need the coordinates to be able to answer

Answer:

200,000

80,000

9,000,000

10,000,000,000

What is the context of this question?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

So standard form just means 200,000 written as like 200^ something(I think)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

21 or 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose, the number of one of the houses is “xy”, whose numerical value = (10x + y).

So, the number of the other house is “yx”, whose numerical value = (10y + x).

Let, “xy” > “yx”.

Now, difference of house numbers = {(10x + y) - (10y + x)} = {9 * (x - y)}; so the difference is a multiple of 9.

Now, the smallest positive number, divisible by 9, that ends with 2 is 72 = (9 * 8).

So, (x - y) = 8.

Since, 0 ≤ x, y ≤ 9; so, there are two solutions in hand:

I) x = 8, y = 0……………………..this makes the house numbers: “80” and “08”.

II) x = 9, y = 1…………………..this makes the house numbers: “91” and “19”.

So, the lowest possible numbers of the houses are “80” and “8” (not “91” and “19”).

A single digit number can not have its reverse number. hence 10,20,30,40,50,60,70,80 and 90 can not be the house number

Reverse of these numbers is same, hence 11,22,33,44,55,66,77,88 and 99 can not be the house number

For other reverse numbers the difference will be in multiples of 9 like 9,18,27,36,45,54,63,72,81

As the difference between house numbers ends in two, the lowest possible numbers of our house are 19 and 91

When 0 (zero) also considred as part of house number, the lowest possible numbers of our house are 08 and 80

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

2/3 and 8/12 are equal because of a multiplying factor. To get from 2 to 8, you'd have to multiply by 4. And to get from 3 to 12 you would have to multiply by 4 as well. So that means they are equal because both the numerator and denominator are multiplied by 4.

If two ratios are equal then the ratios are said to be in proportion and equivalent.

The ratios 2/3 and 8/12 are equivalent.

The simplest form of both ratios is 2/3.

The ratio is the comparison of two quantities of the same units that indicates how much of one quantity is present in the other quantity.

If two ratios are equal then the ratios are said to be in proportion and the ratios are said to be equivalent.

We have,

Two ratios:

2/3 and 8/12

We will make the ratios in their simplest form:

2/3 is in the simplest form.

8/12 = 4x2/4x3 = 2/3 is the simplest form.

We see that both the ratios are equal so the ratios 2/3 and 8/12 are in proportion.

Thus,

The ratios 2/3 and 8/12 are equivalent.

The simplest form of both ratios is 2/3.

Learn more about ratios here:

https://brainly.com/question/2462048

#SPJ2

Answer:

mean:15

median:14

mode:13

range: 8

Answer:

The number of pink pens can be 19 .

Step-by-step explanation:

Total Number of pens = 20

Let x be the number of pink pens

We are supposed to find If the probability of choosing a pink pen is close to 1, how many pink pens would you expect to see in Amanda's bag

Probability of choosing a pink pen = [tex]\frac{\text{Number of pink pens}}{\text{Total Number of pens}}[/tex]

Probability of choosing a pink pen =[tex]\frac{x}{20}[/tex]

ATQ

[tex]\frac{x}{20}[/tex]≈1

x≈20

So, the number of pink pens can be 19 .

Answer:

The answer is 19.

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to substitute x = 4 into the function of g(x) :

g(x) = x² + 3

g(4) = 4² + 3

g(4) = 16 + 3

g(4) = 19

Answer:

yes??? what’s the question??

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

W perimeter = 40

Step-by-step explanation:

All the sides of the squares equal the same amount.

If the perimeter of R is 28 divide 28 by 4 to give you 7.

And to get the area of a square you do length x width

So T would be 3 x 3 = 9

And it you add up 7 + 3 the sides on R and T = 10

So the left side on square W = 10

To get the perimeter multiply 10*4 = 40

I'm 90% sure, but hope this helps!!!

Answer:

Jack Barlow

Step-by-step explanation: