Genetic Pedigree Questions Achondroplastic dwarfism is a dominant genetic trait that causes severe malformation of the skeleton. Homozygotes for this condition are spontaneously aborted (hence, the homozygous condition is lethal) but heterozygotes will develop to be dwarfed. Matthew has a family history of the condition, although he does not express the trait. Jane is an achondroplastic dwarf. Matthew and Jane are planning a family of several children and want to know the chances of producing a child with achondroplastic dwarfism. 1. The genotypes of Matthew and Jane are best represented as Matthew Jane (A) Аа (B) АА Аа ga aa Αα (D) (E) da аа Аа Aa 2. The probability that Matthew and Jane's first child will be an achondroplastic dwarf is (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 50% D) 75% (E) 100% 3. If three children are born to Matthew and Jane, what are the chances that the first two children will not express the trait but that the third child will be an achondroplastic dwarf? (A) 5/8 (B) 4/8 (C) 3/8 (D) 1/8 (E) 1/16

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Answer 1

(1) The genotypes of Matthew and Jane for Achondroplastic dwarfism will be aa nd Aa respectively; (2) The probability that their first child will be an achondroplastic dwarf is 50%; (3) The chances that the first two children will not express the trait but that the third child will be an achondroplastic dwarf will be 1/8.

Since Achondroplastic dwarfism is a dominant trait and homozygotes are lethal, therefore people with not trait will be homozygous recessive (aa) and people with dwarfism will he heterozygous (Aa).

Probability provides the raw idea about the genetic composition of the future offspring through a mating. For a cross between the genotype aa and Aa, there will be 50% chances of genotype Aa and 50% chances of genotype aa for the offspring. Similarly, chances of first two children not expressing the trait will be 1/2 and the third child expressing dwarfism will also be 1/2. Multiplying all these probabilities (1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2) gives the results 1/8.

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Related Questions

Which of the following functional groups most appropriately describes the type of acyl group in vitamin C?
A. lactum
B. ester
C. ether
D. lactone

Answers

The functional group most appropriately describe the type of acyl group in vitamin C is ether.

Thus, the correct answer is C.

Vitаmin C, аlso known аs аscorbic аcid, is а very essentiаl vitаmin which is to be required by our body dаily in the diet. Vitаmin C is soluble in wаter аnd is therefore known аs the wаter-soluble vitаmins. Wаter soluble vitаmins аre those vitаmins which must be supplied in the diet regulаrly becаuse they аre reаdily excreted in urine аnd cаnnot be stored in our body.

The structure of Vitаmin C in the functionаl groups present аre:

-OH group (i.e. hydroxyl group),-C=O (cаrbonyl group), аnd -O- group (i.e. ether group)

Hence, the functionаl group in vitаmin C аre hydroxyl, cаrbonyl аnd ether respectively.

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In a particular plant species, two alleles control flower color, which can be yellow, blue, or white. Crosses of these plants produce the following offspring: OffspringParental phenotypes phenotypes (ration)Yellow x Yellow All yellowBlue x Yellow Blue or Yellow (1:1)Blue x white Blue or White (1:1)White x white All whiteWhat will be the phenotype, and ratio, of the offspring of a cross of blue × blue?

Answers

Phenotype of offspring resulting from the cross of blue × blue would be blue. As both the parents have the same genotype, all of their offspring would also have the same genotype - BB.

We can deduce that allele for blue color is dominant over allele for yellow color. Cross between blue x blue would involve two plants with same genotype BB, resulting in all offspring having a blue flower color phenotype.

Hence, ratio of  offspring would be 1:0, meaning all of the offspring would have a blue flower color phenotype. This ratio indicates that there is no variation in the offspring's genotypes, all of them would have a blue flower color  due to the dominance of the blue allele.

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rj feels nervous when they hear a police car's siren and see its lights in the rearview mirror. as rj's sympathetic nervous system becomes active, their produces .

Answers

Answer:

liver produces glucose

Explanation:

Final answer:

The sympathetic nervous system initiates the 'fight or flight' response when RJ feels nervous at the sight and sound of a police car. In this state, RJ's body will produce stress hormones like adrenaline that prepare the body for action.

Explanation:

When RJ hears a police car's siren and sees its lights in the rearview mirror, their sympathetic nervous system becomes active. The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system, and it's responsible for the fight or flight response, which prepares an individual for action. As such, when it becomes active, RJ's body produces various stress hormones like adrenaline (also known as epinephrine) which result in faster heart rate, increased blood pressure, dilating air passages allowing greater oxygen flow to muscles, and slowing digestion among other effects. This bodily response is natural when faced with perceived danger or stress.

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Consider two solutions separated by a semi-permeable membrane. Solution A contains 1.0M NaCl, while solution B contains 1.0M KCl. The membrane is permeable to water and Na+ only. If you wished to keep Na+ from diffusing from solution A to solution B, which of the following strategies would likely be most effective?
a. Making the membrane permeable to K+.
b. Making the membrane permeable to Cl-.
c. Making the membrane impermeable to water.
d. Adding additional KCl to solution B.
e. Creating a positive charge on the B side of the membrane.

Answers

The appropriate approach is e. Adding a positive charge to the membrane's B side.

What is a simple definition of membrane?

In biology, a membrane is the term used to describe the thin layer that outlines it outside a human cell or an internal cell compartment. The plasma membrane serves as the exterior boundary of the organelles, which are areas enclosed by internal membranes.

What does membrane do?

Cell membranes act as boundaries and checkpoints. Because of their semi-permeability, some chemicals can diffuse out across lipid bilayer but not others. Gases such oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as small hydrophobic compounds, quickly traverse membranes.

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Does herbivore eats it’s consumer

Answers

Answer:No

Explanation:

It consumes plants, so therefore their consumer would not fall in that quantity.

no, herbivore are plant eaters. hence they only eat plants.

which of the following is an example of biotic component of an ecosystem?
A. the climate
b. a cockroach
c. water
d. synthetic pesticides

Answers

An example of biotic component of an ecosystem is cockroach (b)

Ecosystem : Abiotic and Biotic

Ecosystem involves the interaction between biotic and abiotic factors. Abiotic are the non-living components that impact the biotic. The biotic factors are living things within in ecosystem. These factors influence each other.
According to Whittaker, living things are divided into five kingdoms: monera, protist, fungi, animal and plant. As a living thing, cockroach is an example of animal, while the climate, water and synthetic pesticides belong to abiotic factors. 

Thus, from all options, cockroach is a part of biotic component. 

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Developed countries tend to have _____ numbers of people with a _____ ecological footprint than developing countries.

fewer; smaller

greater; larger

fewer; larger

greater; smaller

Answers

Developed countries tend to have fewer numbers of people with a larger ecological footprint than developing countries. Therefore, option C is correct.

What is an ecological footprint?

A person's ecological footprint is the area of the planet's surface required to create all the energy and resources they need to survive, as well as to absorb all the wastes (both indirect and direct) they generate.

Developed countries tend to have fewer numbers of people with a larger ecological footprint than developing countries. Therefore, option C is correct.

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Describe one public health topic from the American Public Health Association website that you’d like to learn more about.

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id love to learn more about polio and its eradication. i find it extremely interesting how we as a community were able to overcome such a horrific virus, especially with the events of the past few years fresh in my mind.

a bond for which the bonholder has the right to sell in the bond beforfe maturity at a specific date is a

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A callable bond is one that allows the bondholder to sell the bond before it matures on a specified date.

A callable bond generally has a lower coupon rate than a non-callable bond with comparable terms, because the issuer assumes additional risk by agreeing to enable the bondholder to sell the bond before maturity.

When interest rates fall, issuers benefit from callable bonds because they can refinance at a reduced rate, lowering their interest expense.

Callable bonds, on the other hand, are less appealing to investors seeking stability and predictability in their income streams because they risk having their bonds called away early.

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Carbon has 4 electrons and hydrogen has 1 electron in its outermost electron shell. A carbon atom can form covalent bonds with how many hydrogen atoms?
A) 0.
B) 4.
C) 2.
D) 3.
E) 1.

Answers

Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with four univalent atoms, e.g. hydrogen.

What is Covalent bond ?

A chemical link known as a covalent bond includes the exchanging of electrons between atoms to create electron pairs. These electron couples are referred to as bonding pairs or sharing pairs. Covalent bonding is the stable equilibrium of the forces that attract and repel atoms when they share electrons.

Ionic bonds are formed between atoms of metals and non-metals when the metal loses an electron to complete its octet and the non-metal gains that electron to complete its octet, as opposed to covalent bonds, which are formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms in order to complete their octet.

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In peas, Round seeds are dominant over Wrinkled, and Yellow is dominant over Green. A wrinkled, yellow (aaBb) plant is crossed with a round, yellow(AaBb) plant and a large number of offspring are produced. Given the results below, calculate the overall Chi-Squared (observed) value for these data. Hint: You will first need to determine the
expected Phenotypic ratio for this cross.
66.67
Wrinkled, Yellow 250
Wrinkled, Green 150
Round, Yellow 250
Round, Green 150

Answers

In peas, Round seeds are dominant over the Wrinkled and Yellow is dominant over the Green. Wrinkled, yellow (aaBb) plant is crossed with round, yellow(AaBb) plant and large number of offspring are produced. Overall Chi-Squared value is : 66.67.

What is meant by phenotype?

In genetics, phenotype is the set of observable characteristics or traits of an organism. The term covers the morphology of organism, its developmental processes, biochemical and physiological properties, behavior and the products of behavior.

Genotype of a person is their unique sequence of DNA. This term is used to refer to two alleles a person has inherited for particular gene. Phenotype is the detectable expression of this genotype which is a patient's clinical presentation.

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Which of the following statements does NOT correctly validate the three strands that compose modern cell biology?A. Cellular structure arises from the combined structures of the macromolecules that compose cells.B. Mutations in the cellular DNA can compromise cellular and macromolecular structure and function.C. Cellular DNA contains information about the structure and function of cellular proteins.D. All of the other available answer choices validate the relationships between the three strands that compose modern cell biology.

Answers

D. All of the other available answer choiceses validate the relationships between the three strands that compose modern cell biology

The three strands that compose modern cell biology are cellular structure, macromolecules, and genetic information. Option A is correct because cellular structures such as membranes, cytoskeleton, and organelles are composed of macromolecules such as lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.

Option B is also correct because mutations in cellular DNA can compromise the structure and function of macromolecules and cellular structures. For example, a mutation in a gene that codes for a structural protein may result in an abnormal protein that disrupts the cellular structure.

Option C is also correct because the genetic information encoded in DNA determines the sequence of amino acids that make up cellular proteins, which in turn determine their structure and function.

In summary, option D is the incorrect answer because it suggests that all available answer choices validate the relationships between the three strands, while one of them does not.

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1. partial union
II. complete union
III. nonunion with no epiphysis
IV. nonunion with separate epiphysis
Choose the correct order of epiphyses fusion during adolescence.
4x A
4x B
III, IV, I, II
III, IV, II
4x C IV, III, II,
1x D I, II, III, IV

Answers

The correct order of epiphyses fusion during adolescence 3,4,1,2. Therefore, the correct option is A.

What is epiphysis?

The epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone, and its main job is to link together nearby bones to create joints.

Between the diaphysis and the epiphysis, there is another portion of the long bone that we refer to as metaphysics. The metaphysis contains the epiphyseal plate, also known as the epiphysis' growth plate.

The epiphysis is likewise protected by articular cartilage at the joint. Contrarily, the bone beneath articular cartilage and its development plate is known as the subchondral bone.Therefore, the correct option is A.

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What is an allele?.......

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Answer:

An allele is a variant form of a gene. Alleles can be found on the same locus, or position, on a chromosome, and can determine different characteristics in organisms, such as eye color or hair color. Alleles are inherited from parents and are located on chromosomes.

An allele is an alternative form of a gene, and it affects the phenotype, or physical characteristics, of the organism. Alleles can be either dominant or recessive, and they are important in understanding genetic inheritance and variation. Dominant alleles are those that are expressed when present and can override any recessive alleles, while recessive alleles must be present in both copies of the gene in order for them to be expressed. Alleles can also interact with each other in unique ways, producing different effects. For example, two alleles for the same gene may produce a completely different phenotype, or even no phenotype at all in some cases.

Answer:A gene that causes a specific trait.

Explanation:

which statement indicates to the nurse that the client understands how to calculate her fertile period using the calendar method of birth control?

Answers

Based on this information, I know that I am most likely to ovulate on the 14th day before my next period, and I will avoid having sex during that time to prevent pregnancy."

explain fertile period ?

The fertile period, also known as the "fertile window," refers to the period of time during a woman's menstrual cycle when she is most likely to become pregnant if she has unprotected sexual intercourse. This period typically lasts for several days leading up to and including the day of ovulation, which is when an egg is released from the ovary and can be fertilized by sperm.

The length of the fertile period can vary depending on the length of a woman's menstrual cycle, which is the number of days from the first day of her period to the first day of her next period.

A statement that indicates to the nurse that the client understands how to calculate her fertile period using the calendar method of birth control could be:

"I have been tracking my menstrual cycles and have identified the length of my shortest cycle and longest cycle. Based on this information, I know that I am most likely to ovulate on the 14th day before my next period, and I will avoid having sex during that time to prevent pregnancy."

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Which of the following is/are among the functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton? (Select all that apply.) Helps in cell division Aggregates to form the nuclear envelope Transports organelles within cells Binds cells together Gives cells shape and structure

Answers

Functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton include:

Helps in cell division.

Transports organelles within cells.

Gives cells shape and structure.

What is a eukaryotic cytoskeleton?

The intricate network of protein filaments and tubules that supports the structure and aids in maintaining the shape of cells is known as the eukaryotic cytoskeleton. Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules are the three main types of filamentous proteins that make up this structure. Actin-based microfilaments, which are the smallest and play a role in both cell movement and muscle contraction, are the thinnest. The thicker intermediate filaments give cells, particularly those under mechanical stress, like skin cells, mechanical strength. The biggest microtubules act as the "tracks" for cell division and organelle migration. Additionally, cellular signaling, motility, and intracellular transport are all significantly influenced by the cytoskeleton.

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Complete each statement by dragging each label into the appropriate blank. Then place the statements in order to coincide 20 with the the vesicular transport process. Drag the text blocks below into their correct order. peroxisome phagosome A wandering macrophage encounters a bacterium. trancytosis Release of the digested bacterium indicates the excretion of waste products via vesicle pinocytosis Enzymes from the lysosome degrade and digest the bacterium. macrophage When completely surrounded, the bacterium is brought inside the cell membrane and forms a phagosome. exocytosis The now moves back to the cell membrane where it fuses endocytosis once again. lysosome

Answers

A bacterium is discovered by a wandering macrophage. When the bacterium is completely surrounded, it is brought inside the cell membrane and forms a phagosome. --> Via vesicle transport, the phagosome moves through the cell. -->> Lysosome enzymes degrade and digest the bacterium. —>>

What is the process ?

To complete the process, the following statements can be included:

The peroxisome is also involved in the degradation of toxic substances produced during the phagocytosis process. Transcytosis is a process that, like endocytosis and exocytosis, involves the use of vesicles to transport substances across a cell or through a cell layer.

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Phospholipids make a fluid liquid, meaning that molecules move within the membrane structure without the input of energy. Which of the following phospholipid movements require the input of energy?
A. phospholipid flipping (movement from one layer to another).
B. flexion rotation.
C. lateral diffusion

Answers

Option A is Correct. Since phospholipids produce a liquid, molecules can flow freely within the membrane structure without the need for external energy.

The following describes phospholipid flipping (transition from one layer to another). Movements of phospholipids require energy to be supplied. Since phospholipid molecules can't bunch up and form a solid due to the unsaturated hydrophobic tails, biological membranes stay fluid.

A number of pure phospholipids have been proven to change from a crystalline to a liquid crystalline state at a temperature based on the amount and type of unsaturation in the fatty acid residues using a variety of physical approaches. The interior of the cell membrane, on the other hand, is hydrophobic and does not interact with water. To effectively segregate fluid, phospholipids create a two-layer cell membrane.

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6.illustrate and explain how the level of dna sequence similarity between organisms reveals their relationship through evolution.

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The level of DNA sequence similarity between organisms reveals their relationship through evolution because if two organisms are evolutionarily related then their genetic sequences are very similar or may be even identical.

DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic Acid. It is the major form of genetic material present in majority of the organisms. The structure of DNA is composed of two anti-parallel strands joined together by hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases.

Evolution is the long-term phenomenon of changes in a population in order to adapt better in their changing surroundings and survive. The evolution takes generations over generations to occur and is a population phenomenon.

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In the Phenotypes, Genes, and the Environment lecture, we evaluated phenotypic variation in 4 hypothetical bug populations. This question pertains to those 4 hypothetical populations and you will need to view them to answer this question successfully. Please find the appropriate slide before attempting this question. The full slide set as of 5.19.2020 has been posted in the modules section.
We determined that all four population had Vp > 0. We also know that population 2 has Vg = 0 and population 4 has Ve = 0. Select the answers that correctly describe the relationship between Vp, Ve, and Vg
A. Vp can be greater than 0 even if both Ve and Vg in a population are 0.
B. Vp describes total phenotypic variation in a population irrespective of whether that variation has environmental or genetic causes.
C. As long as Ve OR Vg are greater than 0, Vp will also be greater than 0.

Answers

It is referred to as the total of inherited (Vg), environment (Ve), and Vg and Ve interaction variation. Vp will be more than 0 as far as Ve And Vg are both greater than 0.

What does genetic variation mean?

The variance in morphologies that occurs in a population is termed as phenotypic variation. People exist in varied shapes and sizes for instance; different phenotypes include differences in size, weight, and body form. The capacity to roll your tongues is a changeable trait, as are height, eye color, and skin tone.

What are genotypic variability and phenotypic variance?

A person's genotype is made up of all the variants they have for a certain gene. The sum of a person's traits or observable features is their phenotype.

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How has cell technology most likely benefited the commercial flower industry?
Growers can quickly grow disease-resistant plants from tissue cultures.
Growers can study plant growth patterns under many different conditions.
Growers can grow seedlings without using expensive fertilizers.
Growers can create new flower colors without using cross-pollination.

Answers

From tissue cultures, growers may swiftly produce plants that are resistant to disease. (Position a)

What is technology based on human stem cells?

Stem cell treatment, commonly referred to as regenerative medicine, uses stem cells or their byproducts to encourage the body's natural ability to heal damaged, sick, or malfunctioning tissue. It is the next phase of organ transplantation and replaces donor organs, which are scarce, with cells.

How well does stem cell technology work?

The type of treatment, the illness or condition being treated, and indeed the stage of the illness can all affect the likelihood of success of stem cell therapy. Stem cell therapy is generally regarded as a secure and efficient treatment option for a variety of illnesses.

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How much of the land can be farmed?
one third
O two thirds
one half
O one fifth

Answers

The farmer has one-fifth (1/5) of the original land left for farming.

The correct option is B.

What fraction of the land is left that can be farmed?

The fraction of the land left that can be farmed is calculated as follows:

Assuming that the farmer initially had 100 units of land.

So, 1/5 of the land is 100 * 1/5 = 20 units.

After the first sale, the farmer had 100 - 20 = 80 units of land left.

The second sale was 3/4 of what remained, so 3/4 of 80 units is 3/4 * 80 = 60 units.

So, the farmer can now farm 80 - 60 = 20 units of land.

Fraction left = 20/100 or 1/5

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Complete question:

A farmer sold 1/5 of his land and then sold again 3/4 of what remained. How much of the land can be farmed?

Why is it important for DNA to remain in the nucleus?

Answers

Explanation:

DNA contains the genetic information necessary for the growth, development, and function of all living organisms. It is responsible for the production of proteins, which carry out essential functions within cells. Therefore, it is important for DNA to remain in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, where it is protected and tightly regulated.

If DNA were to leave the nucleus, it could potentially be damaged by various external factors, such as radiation or chemical exposure, leading to genetic mutations and abnormalities. Additionally, the complex processes of DNA replication, transcription, and translation require the tightly regulated environment of the nucleus, which contains specialized proteins and enzymes that facilitate these processes.

Moreover, DNA in the nucleus is organized and packaged into a highly structured form called chromatin, which helps to compact the long strands of DNA and maintain its stability. The nuclear envelope also serves as a physical barrier that separates the DNA from the rest of the cell, helping to prevent interactions with other cellular components that could interfere with its function.

In summary, the nuclear localization of DNA is critical for its protection, regulation, and efficient function within eukaryotic cells.

which of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?

Answers

Active transport could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings

What is active transport ?

By using cellular energy, active transport involves transporting molecules across a cell membrane.

Active transport is the movement of molecules through the cell membrane with the aid of an energy-storing substance called ATP (adenosine triphosphate). ATP is a chemical that stores energy.

High concentrations of substances the cell needs, like ions, glucose, and amino acids, are typically accumulated during active transport. Active transport examples include the uptake of glucose in human intestines and the uptake of mineral ions into plant root hair cells.

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which of the following statements about genetic linkage is generally true? see section 5.1 (page 147

Answers

It is commonly accepted that the closer two genes are to one another on a chromosome, the more likely it is that they will be inherited together during meiosis in genetic linkage.

The likelihood that two genes will be inherited together during meiosis increases with the distance between them on a chromosome, which is a general rule of genetic linkage. This is true because genetic linkage describes the propensity for genes that are adjacent to one another on a chromosome to be passed down as a group rather than separately. Recombination, or the exchange of genetic material across homologous chromosomes, is a process that determines how closely two genes are linked. Therefore, genetic linkage is crucial for comprehending the patterns of trait inheritance and the location of genes on chromosomes.

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What is a generally true statement about genetic linkage?

the fact that the refractory period limits the firing rate of neurons is problematic for?

Answers

The refractory period is a brief period of time after a neuron fires an action potential during which the neuron cannot fire another action potential

This period is essential for proper neuronal signaling and prevents excessive firing of neurons. However, the fact that the refractory period limits the firing rate of neurons can be problematic for certain types of signaling.

For example, in situations where rapid signaling is required, such as during high-frequency stimulation or in certain brain circuits involved in perception or motor control, the refractory period can limit the information processing capacity of the neuron or circuit. In some cases, neurons have evolved to overcome this limitation by adjusting their properties, such as by decreasing the duration of the refractory period or by increasing the speed of their action potentials.

Overall, while the refractory period can limit the firing rate of neurons, it is essential for proper neuronal signaling and is an important mechanism for regulating the activity of neural circuits.

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Which planes when passed through the body would result in two sections, with each section containing a piece of the heart and a piece of each lung?

Answers

The  planes when passed through the body would result in two sections, with each section containing a piece of the heart and a piece of each lung is The transverse plane.

One of the planes of the body that describes where the parts are in respect to one another is the transverse plane. The superior or head part and the inferior or tail section of the body are separated by the transverse plane, sometimes referred to as the axial plane or horizontal plane.

It is referred to as a transverse plane if the body were divided into two halves, each holding the heart and both lungs.Your upper body and lower body are split in two by a horizontal plane in the transverse view of your body.

While the coronal view divides your front and back, the body is still cut down the middle in this view. Think of the "crown" of the corona when you think of the head being cut. Picture added to make understanding easier.

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categorize the description to their corresponding leukocyte type by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

Answers

hey!! the answer is in the photo! hope you do well on your exam!!

a. Imagine generating two random sequences, each 100 nucleotides in length. If you align them pairwise, at how many positions are they expected to match just by chance? (hint: think about the chance a single randomly chosen nucleotide will match another randomly chosen nucleotide)
b. Now imagine generating two random sequences, each 100 amino acids in length. In a pairwise alignment, at how many positions are they expected to match by chance?

Answers

We can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 0 or 1. However, it's worth noting that this assumes that all amino acids have an equal probability of occurring at each position, which is not necessarily true in reality.

What is Nucleotide?

A nucleotide is a small organic molecule that serves as the basic building block of nucleic acids, which are the genetic material of all living organisms. Nucleotides consist of three parts: a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar molecule, and a phosphate group.

a. For two random sequences each 100 nucleotides in length, the chance of a single nucleotide in one sequence matching a specific nucleotide in the other sequence is 1/4, since there are four possible nucleotides (A, C, G, T) at each position. Therefore, the chance of two nucleotides in the two sequences matching by chance is (1/4) x (1/4) = 1/16.

Since there are 100 positions in each sequence, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be:

100 x (1/16) = 6.25

However, since we cannot have a fraction of a match, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 6 or 7.

b. For two random sequences each 100 amino acids in length, the chance of a single amino acid in one sequence matching a specific amino acid in the other sequence depends on the number of possible amino acids that can occur at each position. There are 20 possible amino acids, so the chance of two amino acids in the two sequences matching by chance is (1/20) x (1/20) = 1/400.

Since there are 100 positions in each sequence, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be:

100 x (1/400) = 0.25

Therefore, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 0 or 1. However, it's worth noting that this assumes that all amino acids have an equal probability of occurring at each position, which is not necessarily true in reality. The actual number of matches observed in a pairwise alignment of two protein sequences will depend on the specific sequences being compared and their degree of similarity.

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read each of the sentences that describe the results of the hershey-chase experiment. match each statement to the correct bacteriophage experiment.bacteriophages are shown marked with either phosphorus-32 or sulfur-35. put responses in the correct input to answer the question. select a response, navigate to the desired input and insert the response. responses can be selected and inserted using the space bar, enter key, left mouse button or touchpad. responses can also be moved by dragging with a mouse. contains radioactive isotope used to label dna contains radioactive isotope used to label proteins radioactivity found inside the infected bacterium radioactivity not found inside the infected bacterium results confirm that dna is the genetic material of the bacteriophage results confirm that protein is not the genetic material of the bacteriophage

Answers

The two basis for differences is phosphorus-32 and sulfur-35 which comprises a radioactive isotope that is used to mark the DNA and another to mark the protein respectively.

Hershey and Chase discovered that when non-radioactive bacteria were exposed to bacteriophages bearing the radioactive 32P, all the infected cells became radioactive and that a large portion of the radioactivity was transferred to the bacteriophages' offspring.

However, when the bacteria were infected with bacteriophages labelled with 35S and the virus coats were afterwards removed by spinning them in an electric blender, very little radioactivity was discovered in the infected cells.

Phosphorus-32:

DNA is marked by a radioactive isotope found in bacteria phages.

The bacterium that is infected contains radioactivity.

The genetic make-up of the bacteriophage is DNA, according to the findings.

Sulfur-35:

Radioactive isotope is present in bacteriophages and is utilized to label proteins.

The infected bacterium contains no detectable radioactivity.

Findings show that the bacteriophage's genetic makeup is not protein.

To know more about Hershey-Chase experiments, refer:

https://brainly.com/question/13172794

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