The lock and key model is a theoretical illustration of how enzymes interact with substrate molecules while the induced fit model suggests that the enzyme changes its shape as it interacts with the substrate molecule. In this way, the two models are different.
The lock-and-key model of enzymes claims that the shape of the active site on the enzyme molecule is such that it specifically matches the shape of a complementary substrate molecule. According to this model, the active site is rigid and unchanging, and the substrate molecule's shape must fit into it precisely.
The induced fit theory suggests that as a substrate approaches the enzyme's active site, the active site's shape shifts slightly to accommodate the substrate's shape, resulting in a tighter, more snug fit. According to this theory, the active site and substrate molecule both shift as they interact, with the enzyme shifting into a new shape that is optimized for catalysis when bound to the substrate molecule.
The induced fit theory is the most widely acknowledged theory of enzyme-substrate interactions.
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In the rate of oxygen synthesis in elodea experiment, why did the solution in the tubing move upward in the volumeter when exposed to light? Why did the solution in the tubing move downward when covered with foil?
In the rate of oxygen synthesis in elodea experiment, the solution in the tubing moves upward in the volumeter when exposed to light because photosynthesis is happening. Similarly, the solution in the tubing moves downward when covered with foil because photosynthesis is not happening.
In the rate of oxygen synthesis in elodea experiment, the rate of oxygen synthesis is measured by the number of bubbles released in the given amount of time. In the case of this experiment, elodea was used to produce oxygen through photosynthesis.
When exposed to light, the solution in the tube rises in the volumeter because photosynthesis occurs. This indicates that the plant is producing oxygen, which is entering the tube. When the volume of the tube grows, the solution in the volumeter rises.
When the tubing is covered with foil, the fluid in the tube goes downwards since photosynthesis does not occur. This signifies that the plant is not producing oxygen and that the oxygen currently present in the tubing is being consumed. This reduces the capacity of the tube, causing the solution in the volumeter to fall.
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Which of the following best describes topsoil?
Answer:
the upper layer of soil
Explanation:
It has the highest concentration of organic matter and microorganisms and is where most of the Earth's biological soil activity occurs.
emelang
In pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t). A homozygous dominant plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive one.a. What are the genotypes and phenotypes of this first generation of offspring?b. What would be the results if two of the first generation offspring mated?
If two of the first generation offspring mated, the results will be a genotype ratio of 1 TT : 2Tt : 1tt, and a phenotype ratio of 3 tall : 1 short.
Genotype is a term used to describe the genetic state of an individual or group of individuals within a population. Genotype can refer to the genetic state of a locus or all the genetic material carried by a chromosome (genome). Genotypes are either homozygous or heterozygous.
The genotypes of the first generation offspring will be TT (homozygous dominant) and tt (homozygous recessive). The phenotypes of the first generation offspring will be tall and short, respectively.
If two of the first generation offspring mated, the results will be a genotype ratio of 1 TT : 2Tt : 1tt, and a phenotype ratio of 3 tall : 1 short.
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If a population experiences no migration, is very large, has no mutations, has random mating, and there is no selection, which of the following would you predict?
A .The makeup of the population’s gene pool will remain virtually the same as long as these conditions hold
b. The population will evolve, but much more slowly than normal
c. Dominant alleles in the population’s gene pool will slowly increase in frequency while recessive alleles will decrease
d. The composition of the population’s gene pool will change slowly in a predictable manner
e. The population probably has an equal frequency of A and a alleles
If a population experiences no migration, is very large, has no mutations, has random mating, and there is no selection, The makeup of the population’s gene pool will remain virtually the same as long as these conditions hold. the correct option is A.
A gene pool is the total genetic information available within a population at a certain time. The more variability within a gene pool, the higher the gene flow between the population, the less the genetic drift, and the less the founder impact, the greater the heterozygosity and genetic diversity. The makeup of the population’s gene pool will remain virtually the same as long as these conditions hold if the population experiences no migration, is very large, has no mutations, has random mating, and there is no selection.
In the gene pool, mutations can cause variation. Mutations are often random, and not all mutations have the same effect on the phenotype of an individual. Genetic drift may lead to a significant change in the gene pool, resulting in the loss of alleles, an increase in the frequency of some alleles, and the formation of new alleles from existing ones.
Thus, the makeup of the population’s gene pool will remain virtually the same as long as these conditions hold. Hence correct option is A.
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Classical conditioning is fastest and strongest when?
Classical conditioning is the quickest and strongest when the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) comes immediately after the conditioned stimulus (CS).
What is classical conditioning?Classical conditioning is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired with a stimulus that elicits a response, resulting in the neutral stimulus eliciting a similar response to that of the initial stimulus. A neutral stimulus is one that does not initially elicit a response, while a stimulus that elicits a response is referred to as an unconditioned stimulus. A response that is elicited by an unconditioned stimulus is referred to as an unconditioned response (UCR).
There are four primary phases of classical conditioning, and they include:
Acquisition: During this phase, the neutral stimulus is paired with the unconditioned stimulus. In this phase, the association between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli is established.
Extinction: The process of weakening the conditioned response by presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus over a period of time.
Spontaneous recovery: The spontaneous recurrence of the conditioned response after a period of time, often after the extinction of the conditioned response.
Generalization: The tendency of a stimulus to evoke a similar response to that of the conditioned stimulus.
Classical conditioning is the fastest and strongest when the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) comes immediately after the conditioned stimulus (CS). This is referred to as the temporal contiguity effect. It is a phenomenon in which an association between two stimuli is established faster and stronger when they are presented together in a short amount of time.
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following is a list of meiotic events in no particular order. 1-segregation of homologous chromosomes to opposite poles. 2-segregation of sister chromatids to opposite poles. 3-alignment of homologous pairs on the midplate of the cell. 4-pairing and synapsis of homologous chromosomes. 5-new nuclear envelopes form around 4 new nuclei. what is the correct order of events?
The correct order of meiotic events is 4, 3, 1, 2, 5. During meiosis, the parent cell divides to create four haploid cells that are genetically distinct from one another. Meiosis involves two stages: meiosis I and meiosis II.
Meiosis is a type of cell division that creates four haploid daughter cells from a single diploid parent cell. Meiosis is required for the production of sex cells (sperm or egg), which contain half as many chromosomes as the parent cell. Because meiosis produces four genetically distinct daughter cells, each containing a different set of chromosomes, it creates genetic diversity. It occurs in all sexually reproducing eukaryotes.
The correct order of meiotic events is:
4. Pairing and synapsis of homologous chromosomes
3. Alignment of homologous pairs on the midplate of the cell
1. Segregation of homologous chromosomes to opposite poles
2. Segregation of sister chromatids to opposite poles
5. New nuclear envelopes form around 4 new nuclei
Meiosis is a two-step process that results in four daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In the first step, homologous chromosomes pair and synapse, then align on the midplate of the cell. Following this, sister chromatids segregate to opposite poles, and homologous chromosomes do the same. Finally, new nuclear envelopes form around four new nuclei. So, the correct order of meiotic events is 4, 3, 1, 2, 5.
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the pct reabsorbs water at a constant rate known as what?
The PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) is responsible for the reabsorption of various solutes and water from the filtrate.
The rate of water reabsorption is known as the obligatory water reabsorption or the water reabsorption threshold. The obligatory water reabsorption is the minimum amount of water that is reabsorbed from the filtrate to maintain the body's water balance.
It is an active process that is regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone. These hormones increase the permeability of the collecting ducts and distal tubules to water, allowing for more water to be reabsorbed and reducing the amount of urine produced.
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the percentage of floating leaf disks is a reasonable measure of photosynthetic rate because the leaves float due to ________ production.
Answer:
oxygen
Explanation:
Question.
What is an adaptation?
Responses:
1: A change that helps a species survive.
2: A change that makes a species become extinct.
3: A change that prevents a species from surviving.
4: A change that makes a species prettier to look at.
the correct answer is A. It is the change that helps a species survive.
for animals to survive they have to adapt to their environments and sometimes they have to make changes as their environments change constantly around them so the answer would be 1: A change that helps a species survive. sorry if it doesn't make sense i try my best to explain
what can you infer from the fact that the disappearance of just one species can disrupt an entire food chain?
From the fact that the disappearance of just one species can disrupt an entire food chain, it can be inferred that the whole ecosystem will get disturbed because of the deletion of one species.
By disrupting the chain, the absence of one species can impact the entire ecosystem. For example, if one species of plant were to disappear, then animals that rely on that plant for food would suffer, as well as any animals that feed on those animals. This chain reaction can potentially cause the entire food chain to collapse.
Additionally, the disappearance of a keystone species, or a species that has an outsized impact on the entire ecosystem, can have devastating consequences for the entire food chain. This is because when the keystone species is removed, the entire food chain is destabilized, resulting in a number of ecological issues.
Therefore, it can be inferred that the disappearance of just one species can cause a ripple effect that has far-reaching consequences on an entire food chain. Without a keystone species, an entire food chain could collapse, and any disruption to the chain could lead to negative effects on the environment. It is essential that humans take steps to protect species, as the consequences of even a single species going extinct can be dramatic.
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which of the following is in proper order starting as you inhale air through the nose down to the lungs? A, nasal cavity>larynx>pharynx>trachea>main bronchi>segmental bronchi>bronchiole>terminal bronchiole>respiratory bronchiole>alveolus B. nasal cavity>pharynx>larynx>trachea>main bronchi>segmental bronchi>bronchiole>terminal bronchiole>respiratory bronchiole>alveolus C. nasal cavity>pharynx>trachea>larynx>main bronchi>segmental bronchi>bronchiole>terminal bronchiole>respiratory bronchiole>alveolus D. nasal cavity>pharynx>larynx>trachea>main bronchi>segmental bronchi> bronchiole>respiratory bronchiole>terminal bronchiole>alveolus
In the respiratory system, the proper order starting as you inhale air through the nose down to the lungs is: Nasal cavity > Pharynx > Larynx > Trachea > Main bronchi > Segmental bronchi > Bronchiole > Terminal bronchiole > Respiratory bronchiole > Alveolus. Hence, option B is correct.
The respiratory system is the system responsible for breathing. It has various components and organs that work together to enable breathing. The respiratory system comprises the nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, and alveoli.
Nasal cavity: This is the first stage in the respiratory system where air enters. It is also known as the nose.
Pharynx: It is a muscular tube located between the mouth and the larynx. It helps in the passage of food and air.
Larynx: It is a part of the respiratory system that connects the pharynx to the trachea. It has vocal cords and is responsible for sound production.
Trachea: This is a tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi. It is also known as the windpipe.
Main bronchi: The trachea divides into two main bronchi. Each bronchus leads to one lung.
Segmental bronchi: Each main bronchus is further divided into smaller segments called segmental bronchi.
Bronchiole: The segmental bronchi are further divided into bronchioles.
Terminal bronchiole: The bronchioles further divide into terminal bronchioles.
Respiratory bronchiole: They are thin-walled tubes that are responsible for gas exchange.
Alveolus: The respiratory bronchiole leads to the alveoli, which are small air sacs that are responsible for gaseous exchange.
Therefore in the respiratory system, the proper order starting as you inhale air through the nose down to the lungs is: Nasal cavity > Pharynx > Larynx > Trachea > Main bronchi > Segmental bronchi > Bronchiole > Terminal bronchiole > Respiratory bronchiole > Alveolus.
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calculate the percentage increase in the diameter of the zone of inhibition when the concentration of honey was increased from 25% to 50%
(P.S answer in %)
Answer: 40% i think
Explanation:
The peptide portion of any protein without its prosthetic group is called ______. A. Apoprotein B. Preprotein C. Holoprotein D. Euprotein
The peptide portion of any protein without its prosthetic group is called apoprotein.Therefore the correct option is option A.
An apoprotein, also known as an "apo-protein," is a protein that lacks a necessary prosthetic group or cofactor to accomplish its physiological function. An apoprotein refers to a protein that has been stripped of its covalently linked prosthetic group, while a holoprotein refers to a complete protein that includes all of its cofactors or prosthetic groups.
Example: A mature hemoglobin molecule, which contains two alpha globin chains and two beta globin chains, each of which has a heme group attached to it, is an example of a holoprotein. Hemoglobin that lacks heme is referred to as apo hemoglobin, and it cannot bind oxygen. Therefore the correct option is option A.
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according toing to the chart which organism would you argue that humans ahre the most recent common ancestor with and why
According to the chart, humans would share the most recent common ancestor with chimpanzees, as humans and chimpanzees are closest on the evolutionary tree.
An organism that is the most recent ancestor shared by two or more different species is referred to as a common ancestor. Humans and chimpanzees are both primates who evolved from a common ancestor.
Humans and chimpanzees are more closely related genetically than to any other animal species.The human and chimpanzee genomes have been compared, and it has been determined that they share 98 percent of their DNA. As a result, it is evident that humans and chimpanzees are closely related species.
The human genome has evolved more quickly than that of the chimpanzee, which accounts for the significant differences between the two species.The chimpanzee genome was sequenced in 2005, providing researchers with a wealth of genetic data to investigate human evolution.
It is evident from the data that the human lineage diverged from the chimpanzee lineage between five and seven million years ago. Humans and chimpanzees share a common ancestor, which is thought to be the ancestral hominid.
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The process of osteolysis is performed by which cell population? a) osteoprogenitor cells b) osteocytes c) osteoclasts d) osteoblasts
The process of osteolysis is performed by osteoclasts. Osteoclasts are multinucleated cells that are specialized to resorb or break down bone tissue. They are derived from hematopoietic stem cells and are regulated by various hormones and cytokines.
Osteoclasts secrete enzymes and acids that dissolve the mineralized matrix of bone and break down the organic components. This process is critical for bone remodeling, which involves the continuous turnover of bone tissue to maintain bone health and integrity. Osteoprogenitor cells, osteocytes, and osteoblasts are involved in other aspects of bone biology, such as bone formation and repair, but not in osteolysis.
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Which of these is not part of the splanchnic circulation?
A) inferior vena cava
B) hepatic portal vein
C) superior mesenteric artery
D) celiac artery
The answer is A) inferior vena cava is no part of the splanchnic circulation.
What is splanchnic circulation?
Splanchnic circulation is the portion of the cardiovascular system that is responsible for the blood supply to the abdominal organs (viscera). This includes blood vessels and capillaries that serve the liver, pancreas, stomach, and intestines.
The liver, spleen, pancreas, and gastrointestinal tract (small and large intestine) make up the organs that make up the splanchnic circulation. Blood enters the liver and gastrointestinal tract through the hepatic portal vein and then exits through the hepatic vein.
The three arteries that supply blood to the splanchnic circulation are the celiac artery, the superior mesenteric artery, and the inferior mesenteric artery. The celiac artery supplies blood to the stomach, liver, spleen, and upper duodenum. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine and the right colon.
The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the left colon and rectum. The inferior vena cava is not part of the splanchnic circulation.
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microscopy someone would like to look at living algee and water what kind of equipment should you use
Microscopy is the study of small organisms with the aid of a microscope. Observing living algae and water under a microscope requires special equipment. The appropriate equipment to use when observing living algae and water under a microscope is known as a wet mount.
What is a wet mount? A wet mount is a technique used in microscopy to observe living organisms in their natural habitat. A drop of liquid containing the organism is placed on a microscope slide and covered with a cover slip. A wet mount is suitable for observing living organisms since it does not kill or distort their natural shape.
The following are the materials needed to create a wet mount for microscopy: Microscope slide, Coverslip, Dropper tube, or pipette. The microscope can be used to observe living algae and water by creating a wet mount slide. The wet mount slide has an advantage over other microscopy techniques in that it is simple and easy to use.
A wet mount slide is also less prone to error since it does not involve complicated or delicate procedures.
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The digestive system is _____.
A group of organs
An organ
The same thing as the stomach
The system that we use to breathe
Answer:
The digestive system is a group of organs.
Explanation:
The digestive system is a group of organs that work together to break down food so our body can use it for energy and nutrients.
Which three sentences describe different tissues in a dog's eye working together to allow the dog to see? A. The lens focuses light on nervous tissue that sends signals to the brain. B. The cornea and lens are made up of connective and epithelial tissues. C. Muscle tissue contracts to change the shapes of the pupil and lens. D. Cardiac tissue contracts in rhythm to pump blood. SUBMIT
The lens focuses light on nervous tissue that sends signals to the brain
The cornea and lens are made up of connective and epithelial tissues
Muscle tissue contracts to change the shapes of the pupil and lens.
What are the tissues that helps a dog to see light?The eyes of a dog are composed of several tissues that work together to enable the dog to see light. These tissues include:
Cornea: The transparent outer layer of the eye that acts as a window to allow light to enter.
Iris: The colored part of the eye that controls the amount of light that enters the eye by adjusting the size of the pupil.
Lens: A clear structure located behind the iris that focuses the incoming light onto the retina.
Retina: The innermost layer of the eye that contains photoreceptor cells (rods and cones) that detect light and send signals to the brain via the optic nerve.
Optic nerve: A bundle of nerve fibers that carries visual information from the retina to the brain.
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this component of the male duct system carries sperm from outside the body into the abdominal cavity.
The male reproductive system includes several structures that work together to produce, store, and deliver sperm. One of the key structures involved in this process is the vas deferens.
The vas deferens, also known as the ductus deferens, is a muscular tube that carries sperm from the epididymis (where sperm mature and are stored) to the urethra. The vas deferens is located within the scrotum and is part of the spermatic cord, which also contains blood vessels, nerves, and other structures.
During ejaculation, the smooth muscles in the wall of the vas deferens contract, propelling the sperm through the duct and into the urethra. From there, the sperm are mixed with seminal fluid from the prostate gland and other accessory glands before being ejaculated from the body.
It is important to note that the vas deferens does not carry sperm from outside the body into the abdominal cavity. Instead, it carries sperm from the testes, where they are produced, to the urethra, where they are ejaculated from the body during sexual activity.
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what is the predominant use of oil in the united statesA) residential useB) industrial useC) transportationD) electricity production
The predominant use of oil in the United States is for transportation. Here option C is the correct answer.
According to the U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA), the transportation sector accounted for approximately 69% of total U.S. petroleum consumption in 2020. This includes the use of gasoline and diesel fuel in cars, trucks, buses, and other vehicles.
While oil is also used for electricity production and industrial purposes, such as manufacturing and chemical production, these sectors combined accounted for only about 23% of total U.S. petroleum consumption in 2020. Residential use of oil for heating and other purposes is relatively small, accounting for less than 1% of total U.S. petroleum consumption.
The dominance of transportation as the primary use of oil highlights the importance of the sector in energy and climate policy. Efforts to reduce oil consumption and transition to cleaner, more sustainable forms of transportation, such as electric vehicles and public transportation, can have a significant impact on reducing greenhouse gas emissions and improving air quality.
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What body type is characterized by a solid, muscular, and large-boned physique?
The body type that is characterized by a solid, muscular, and large-boned physique is the mesomorph body type.
A mesomorph is a body type classification used to describe people with a medium to large bone structure and an athletic build. Mesomorphs have a naturally lean, muscular, and athletic body type. They have broad shoulders, a small waist, and a large chest and legs.
Mesomorphs are gifted athletes who can quickly build muscle mass and are excellent at sports that require strength and power, such as weightlifting, football, and wrestling. The mesomorphic body type is characterized by a solid, muscular, and large-boned physique.
Mesomorphs are naturally athletic, and their bodies are built for strength and power. They have broad shoulders, a small waist, and a large chest and legs, giving them an overall muscular appearance.
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draw the ketal derived from ethylene glycol and cyclohexanone.
The ketal derived from ethylene glycol and cyclohexanone(See Picture) is 1,4-Dioxaspirodecane [tex](C_8H_{14}O_2)[/tex].
When a molecule of ethylene glycol reacts with a molecule of cyclohexanone in the presence of an acid catalyst, a ketal made of ethylene glycol and cyclohexanone is created. A hemiketal intermediate is created during the process, and it subsequently goes through intramolecular cyclization to create the ketal.
The six-membered ring of the ketal made of ethylene glycol and cyclohexanone has a cyclic structure(See Picture) and contains an oxygen atom and two nearby carbon atoms. The neighboring carbon atoms of the cyclohexanone ring are connected to the two hydroxyl groups of the ethylene glycol molecule, while the oxygen atom is bonded to one of the carbon atoms of the ring.
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All of the following are physiologic changes that occur in the musculoskeletal system due to the normal aging process except one. Which one is the exception?
Select one:
a. Decrease in bone volume (mass)
b. Diminished muscular strength and speed
c. Curvature of cervical vertebrae
d. Loss of elasticity in the ligaments
e. Reduced tolerance to temperature extremes
The correct answer for an exception to the musculoskeletal system is e. Reduced tolerance to temperature extremes.
The normal aging process of the musculoskeletal system is characterized by a number of physiological changes, including a decrease in bone volume (mass), diminished muscular strength and speed, the curvature of cervical vertebrae, and loss of elasticity in the ligaments. All of these changes can lead to an increased risk of falls, fractures, and other musculoskeletal injuries.
However, reduced tolerance to temperature extremes is not a physiologic change that typically occurs in the musculoskeletal system due to the normal aging process. Although older adults may experience increased sensitivity to heat, this is largely due to other factors such as chronic medical conditions, medications, and reduced fluid intake, rather than normal aging.
In conclusion, the exception to the physiologic changes that occur in the musculoskeletal system due to the normal aging process is reduced tolerance to temperature extremes.
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all organisms have finite lifetimes and eventually die. which of the basic characteristics of life corrects for this? a. evolutionary adaptation b. energy utilization c. response to the environment d. reproduction
The basic characteristic of life that corrects for the finite lifetimes and eventual death of all organisms is reproduction. Therefore, alternative d is correct.
What is the basic characteristic of life that corrects for finite lifetimes and eventual death?The characteristic of life that corrects for finite lifetimes and eventual death is reproduction. This is because reproduction is the process by which organisms generate offspring and pass on their genetic material. Reproduction is essential for the continuation of life, as it ensures the survival of the species and the perpetuation of genetic variation over time.
A brief overview of the other basic characteristics of life:
Energy Utilization: Living things require energy to carry out metabolic processes.Response to Environment: Living things respond to stimuli in their environment, such as temperature changes, light, or other environmental factors.Evolutionary Adaptation: Over time, living things evolve and adapt to changing environmental conditions.In conclusion, alternative d. reproduction is correct.
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What is the group of macro nutrients ?
(a) N, P, K, Ca, Mg, S (b) Zn, Cu, Mo, Cl, Fe
(c) N, P, K, Zn, Ca, Mg (d) Cl, Zn, Mn, Ba
what is the definition of noncoding dna? dna that is only used to bind activators and repressors dna sequences with no known biological function dna sequences that do not encode proteins dna that is not transcribed into rna
The definition of noncoding DNA is DNA sequences that do not encode proteins.
Noncoding DNA, also known as "junk DNA," is a sequence of DNA that does not code for proteins. It accounts for the majority of an organism's DNA. It was first discovered in the 1960s when researchers discovered that only a small amount of DNA in each chromosome encodes for proteins.
Noncoding DNA is often used to distinguish between species. They can help researchers trace how species have evolved over time. Noncoding DNA can also play a role in genetic diseases and genetic variation.
Noncoding DNA sequences do not contain genetic material that is translated into proteins. The DNA does, however, contain important regulatory elements that aid in gene regulation. They may also have other regulatory roles. These regulatory elements, such as enhancers and promoters, can turn genes on and off. As a result, although noncoding DNA does not directly produce proteins, it does play an important role in gene regulation and function.
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watson and crick proposed the double helix structure model for dna in 1953. which of the following facts was not useful to them in deciding on the molecular model they proposed?
Watson and Crick proposed the double helix structure model for DNA in 1953. The following facts was not useful to them in deciding on the molecular model they proposed is Meselson and Stahl's evidence that DNA replicated semi-conservatively.
Watson and Crick used various facts to determine the molecular model they proposed, including the following: Chargaff's Rule, this rule shows that the amount of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine in DNA is constant. It also demonstrates that adenine and thymine are complementary base pairs, while guanine and cytosine are complementary base pairs.
X-ray crystallography, the X-ray diffraction pattern of the DNA molecule, discovered by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins, aided Watson and Crick in constructing the double helix structure model of DNA. The double helix structure model of DNA, Watson and Crick constructed the double helix structure model of DNA based on the complementary base pairing of adenine and thymine and guanine and cytosine. The complementary base pairs' weak hydrogen bonds form between the two strands of the helix, stabilizing the double helix structure.
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What is an appropriate classification for the ACh receptor found in the neuromuscular junction? ligand-gated, nonspecific, cation channel.
The ligand-gated, nonspecific, cation channel. Like many other ligand-activated neurotransmitter receptors, acetylcholine receptors (AChRs) are divided into two main subtypes.
the ionotropic nicotinic and metabotropic muscarinic receptors. At the neuromuscular junction, the nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor is a neurotransmitter-gated ion channel that has undergone extensive fine-tuning throughout evolution to efficiently and quickly convert a chemical signal into an electrical signal. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) are ligand-gated ion channels that can be divided into two groups: neuronal receptors, which are found throughout the peripheral and central nervous systems, and muscle receptors, which are found at the skeletal neuromuscular junction where they mediate neuromuscular transmission.
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a difference between bacterial and eukaryotic translation is
Answer:
bacteria do not have a distinct nucleus that separates DNA from ribosomes
Explanation:
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