How here we get 2 x 22 x 10

And how we multiply the formula of pi with any number

Answer:

(3,0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

24 !!

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple, x got doubled, and since y varies directly as x, 12 doubled = 24. I hope this helps!!!

Answer:

You have to find the intercept hope this helps

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 45 minutes for BOTH workouts

Step-by-step explanation:

Let time for plan a be x

Let time for plan b be y

On Wednesday

# of clients for plan a are 5

# clients for plan b are 3

On Thursday

# of clients for plan a are 7

# of clients for plan b are 9

Wednesday eqn --> 5x+3y=6

Thursday eqn --> 7x+9y=12

Multiply Wednesday equation by -3 and use elimination to solve

-15x-9y=-18

7x+9y=12

-8x=-6

x=6/8

Reduce: x=3/4 hour

Substitute x=3/4 into Thursday equation

7(3/4)+9y=12

9y=27/4

y=3/4

Therefore, the length of BOTH the plan a and plan b workouts were 45 minutes

Answer:

maybe you can attach the screenshot of the task?

Answer:x < 1,700. ×> 550

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:AHHHH

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9 oz

Step-by-step explanation:

36 ounces * 0.75 = 9oz.

Therefore, the small jar holds about 27 ounces.

Hoped this helped.

[tex]-BrainiacUser1357-[/tex]

Answer:

5/6>2/4

Step-by-step explanation:

5/6 is greater than 2/4

None, because SSA is not a triangle congruence theorem.

Answer:

A True

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Looking at both triangles, angle P in triangle PQR = 38 degrees. Angle N in triangle LMN = 38 degrees. Both angles are equal.

Side PQ in triangle PQR = 16

Side MN in triangle LMN = 8

Therefore,

PQ/MN = 16/8 = 2

Side PR in triangle PQR = 14

Side LN in triangle LMN = 7

Therefore,

PR/LN = 14/7 = 2

Therefore, triangle PQR is similar to

triangle LMN because

1) the length of PQ is proportional to the length of MN.

2) the length of PR is proportional to the length of LN

3) angle P = angle N

4) Therefore, QR is also proportional to ML

Therefore,

PQ/MN = PR/LN = QR/ML = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

The pair of the first two triangles are not similar triangles, while the pair of the next two triangles are similar triangles.

If the respective angles are congruent and the corresponding sides are proportional, two triangles are said to be similar. To put it another way, comparable triangles are similar in shape but not necessarily in size. In addition, the triangles are congruent if their corresponding sides are of identical length.

As it we know that for the two triangles to be similar triangles, the ratio of their corresponding sides should be the same.

A.) In the first pair of triangles,

For the first pair of triangles to be similar,

[tex]\dfrac{US}{UD}=\dfrac{UT}{UE}=\dfrac{ST}{DE}[/tex]

The above ratio should be similar, but since we can see that the ratio,

[tex]\dfrac{US}{UD}\neq \dfrac{UT}{UE}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{39}{16}\neq \dfrac{40}{16}[/tex]

As we can see that the ratio of the sides of the triangle is not the same therefore, the two of the given triangles are not similar triangles.

B.) In the second pair of triangles,

For the second pair of triangles to be similar,

[tex]\dfrac{AB}{HG}=\dfrac{BC}{GF}=\dfrac{CA}{FH}[/tex]

The above ratio should be similar, and as we can see that the ratio,

[tex]\dfrac{72}{12}=\dfrac{48}{8}=\dfrac{84}{14} =6[/tex]

As we can see that the ratio of the sides of the triangle is the same therefore, the two of the given triangles are similar triangles.

Learn more about Similar Triangles:

https://brainly.com/question/25882965

Answer:

87.5

Step-by-step explanation:

2.5 multiple by 8(number of hours) gives 20 dollars

Then 13.5 multiple by 5(number of pools cleaned) gives 67.5

The sum of both is 87.5 dollars

Answer:

Simple: 6000

Compound: 6050

Difference: 50

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple interest formula: A = P(1+rt), where A = final amount, P = initial amount, r = rate, and t = time. Plug our values in to get

A = 5000(1+10% * 2)

convert 10% to a decimal by dividing by 100 and plug that in

10% = 0.1

5000(1+0.1*2) = 5000(1.2) = A = 6000

Compound interest formula: A = P(1+r)^t

Plug our values in

5000(1+0.1)^2 = 6050

Difference = 6050 - 6000 = 50

Answer:

I figure you could simplify it by multiplying both sides by 6, resulting in -31+23=-30+18-1+5

-8=-8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:7

Step-by-step explanation:range is highest number subtracted by lowest

Answer:

17

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for range is max-min.

The max is 91 and the min is 74

91-74=17

Step-by-step explanation:

3 is ur answer

mmmmmmmmmmm

Answer:

has no prison pits as melatarea

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

You can answer this question by putting in the x-value [the 4 in (4, 8)] in for the x variable to see if you get the y-value [the 8 in (4, 8)] as the solution.

y=2(4)

y=8

Since 8 was the answer then yes, (4, 8) satisfies the equation y = 2x.

Step-by-step explanation:

there is a right-angled triangle.

its legs (enclosing the 90° angle) are the height of the skyscraper (396 m) and the shadow (332 m).

so, we know the third side (the Hypotenuse, which is the line of sight between the end of the shadow and the top of the skyscraper) too by using Pythagoras :

c² = a² + b²

line² = 396² + 332² = 156816 + 110224 = 267040

line = sqrt(267040) = 516.7591315... m

and we know 1 angle : the 90° angle between the legs.

the other angles we can now get by using the law of the sines :

a/sin(A) = b/sin(B) = c/sin(C)

where the angles are opposite of the lines.

the line of sight is opposite of the 90° angle.

and the height of the skyscraper is opposite of the angle between the line of sight and the shadow. this angle is also the angle of the sun above the horizon, as the extended line of sight would lead directly to the sun.

so, we have

516.7591315.../sin(90) = 396/sin(angle)

as sin(90) = 1

516.7591315... = 396/sin(angle)

sin(angle) = 396 / 516.7591315... = 0.76631447...

angle = 50.02407526...°

The probability of getting a head on the coin and an odd number on the die is 25%

The Probability in mathematics is the possibility of an event in time. In simple words, how many times that incident is happening in any given time interval.

Given:

One coin is flipped, and then one die is rolled.

Let H is the head and T is tails.

The sample space is {H, T}

The probability of getting a head on the coin

= The possible outcomes / the total outcomes

= 1/2

One die is rolled.

So, the sample space is {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

The sample space for odd number is {1, 3, 5}.

The probability of getting an even number on the die

= 3/6

= 1/2

If two events A and B are independent, then the probability that they occur together is the product of their individual probabilities:

P(A and B) = P(A) P(B)

= 1/2 x 1/2

= 1/4

= 0.25

And 0.25 in percentage is 25%.

Therefore, the probability is 1/4.

To learn more about the probability;

brainly.com/question/11234923

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Answer:  80 (choice B)

=========================================================

Explanation:

This is an interesting venn diagram. Each region is either a circle or some kind of arrow shape. The numbers in the regions correspond to the qualities mentioned. For example, the "55" in the circle outside the other arrow regions tells the reader that there are 55 secretaries who are reliable but don't possess any other quality. As another example, the 35 is inside the circle and the left-pointing arrow to tell us that there are 35 people who are reliable and organized.

What we want to find are the values that are in 3 or more regions. There's only two cases when this happens: The 15 and the 65 as they are in the circle, the double arrow, and one of the single pointing arrows. So we have 15+65 = 80 candidates that possess 3 qualities. No person has all four qualities because there isn't a value that's in all four regions at the same time. Or you could note that the left and right pointing arrows do not overlap which is a big clue that there's no way someone could possess all four qualities at once. It might help to trace out the figures using different colors so you can pull apart the four figures.

Answer:

1/9 (2m - 16) = 1/3 (2m + 4)

expand

2/9m- 16/9 =2/3m +4/3

move m to other side

- 16/9 =2/3m (-2/9m) +4/3

simplify

- 16/9 =(6-2)/9m +4/3

- 16/9 =4/9m +4/3

move 4/3 to other side

- 16/9 -4/3 =4/9m

- 16/9 -12/9 =4/9m

-28/9 = 4/9m

multiply by 9

4m= -28

m= -7

Answer:

  432 characters

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 36 inches in a yard, so there will be 36 times 12 characters:

  (36 in/yd)(12 char/in) = 432 char/yd

432 characters can be expected per yard of text.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

THE ANSWER IS A.  80 + 20 + (-17)

Answer:

Ask your teacher to explain it. I think that the answer is one hundred and thirty-two dollars.

Step-by-step explanation:

The simple interest  follows this formula:

I = C x r% x t

– C would be the capital; the money that is provided (in this case, $1600)

– r would be the rate, which could be annual, monthly, etc. In this scenario, it's  not specified. Therefore, we assume that it's annual as the time is given in years. (It would be equal to 2,75, but don't forget about the percent symbol %, which is equal to 1/100)

– Finally, t stands for time.

Remember that both time and rate must be in the same measurement (annual, monthly, etc).

You multiple everything, and the result is $132

cos (75)=cos (15) nothing square and check