Is angle a similar to angle c

Answer:  see proof below

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the Sum & Difference Identity: cos (A + B) = cos A · cos B - sin A · sin B

Recall the following from Unit Circle: cos (π/2) = 0, sin (π/2) = 1

                                                              cos (π) = -1,   sin (π) = 0    

Use the Quotient Identity:   [tex]\tan A=\dfrac{\sin A}{\cos A}[/tex]

Proof LHS → RHS:

[tex]\text{LHS:}\qquad \qquad \dfrac{\cos \bigg(\dfrac{\pi}{2}+x\bigg)}{\cos \bigg(\pi +x\bigg)}[/tex]

[tex]\text{Sum Difference:}\qquad \dfrac{\cos \dfrac{\pi}{2}\cdot \cos x-\sin \dfrac{\pi}{2}\cdot \sin x}{\cos \pi \cdot \cos x-\sin \pi \cdot \sin x}[/tex]

[tex]\text{Unit Circle:}\qquad \qquad \dfrac{0\cdot \cos x-1\cdot \sin x}{-1\cdot \cos x-0\cdot \sin x}[/tex]

                            [tex]=\dfrac{-\sin x}{-\cos x}[/tex]

Quotient:                 tan x

LHS = RHS [tex]\checkmark[/tex]

Answer:

C, 0;-4

Step-by-step explanation:

y=-4 means that no matter what the x value is, the y value will ALWAYS be -4. It does not change based on what x is, and we can tell that just by looking at it because x isn't even in the equation. I've attached an image of that the graph would look like.

The slope of the graph references how many units the y value increases for each increase in the x value. For example, a slope of 1/2 means that each time the x value increases by 2, the y value would increase by 1. But because y's value never changes, the slope is 0. No matter how much the x value changes, the increase in y values will be 0.

Since the y-axis is at where x=0, the y-intercept basically asks, "What is y's value when x is 0?" But like I mentioned before y's value never changes. It's always -4, no matter what the x value is. Therefore, the y-intercept is at -4.

Answer:the answer to your intresting question is 3

Step-by-step explanation:

add me to brainiest if you want

Answer:

quarts. 11. fluid ounces = —. 1. 4. — quart. 12. quarts = 6 gallons. 13. 16 pints = gallons. 14. ... How many times must a 1-cup measuring cup be filled to equal 4 pints? 2. Leroy has 2 containers. ... can hold. Write cup, pint, quart, or gallon. 15. a bathtub. 16. a container of orange juice. 17. a juice box. 18. a small milk carton. 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The correct answer was C!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

quotient of a and b:   a ÷ b

multiplied:  ×

difference of t and s:  t - s

Therefore:  (a ÷ b) × (t - s)

Answer:

D. (a/b) x (t-s)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :-

The quotient of a and b multiplied by the difference of t and s.

Solving :-

Quotient of a and b = a/b

Difference of t and s = t - s

Multiplied together :-

(a/b) x (t-s)

Solution :-

D. (a/b) x (t-s)

2.95 expressed as a fraction is 59/20.

The decimal is made up of a whole number and a non-integer. In order to convert the decimal to a fraction, divide the non-integer by 100 and add it to the whole number.

2 + 95/100

2 19/20

Now multiply the whole number by the denominator, add the numerator and then divide by the denominator. The result is:

59/20

To learn more about decimals, please check: https://brainly.com/question/15287678

The amount of ice cream that can fit into the cone is about 9.24 in³.

Volume is the amount of space occupied by a three dimensional shape and object. The volume of a cone is given by:

Volume (V) = (1/3) * π * radius² * height

From the dimensions of radius = 1.4 in and height = 4.5 in, hence:

V = (1/3) * π * 1.4² * 4.5 = 9.24 in³

The amount of ice cream that can fit into the cone is about 9.24 in³.

Find out more on volume at: https://brainly.com/question/12410983

Using the volume of the cone, it is found that 9.24 cubic inches of ice cream will fit inside.

The volume of a cone of radius r and height h is given by:

[tex]V = \frac{\pi r^2h}{3}[/tex]

In this problem, the cone has a radius of 1.4 inches and a height of 4.5 inches, hence r = 1.4, h = 4.5, then:

[tex]V = \frac{\pi 1.4^2(4.5)}{3} = 9.24[/tex]

9.24 cubic inches of ice cream will fit inside.

More can be learned about the volume of a cone at https://brainly.com/question/14281550

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

8x² - 30x - 27 = 0

8 = 4 * 2

-27 = -9 * 3

-30 = 4*(-9) + 2*3

so (4x + 3)(2x - 9) = 0

Answer:

[tex]1-P(8.85 < X < 9.15)=0.3173[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to first calculate the probability that a unit between the weight of 8.85 and 9.15 ounces is NOT a defect, then subtract it from 1.

It just so happens that 8.85 and 9.15 are both 1 standard deviation from the mean of 9, so by the Empirical Rule, [tex]P(8.85 < X < 9.15)=0.6827[/tex].

Thus, the probability of a unit being a defect is [tex]1-P(8.85 < X < 9.15)=1-0.6827=0.3173[/tex]

Answer:

There is no table attached, if you attach is I will gladly help :)

Step-by-step explanation:

2 hours, 35 minutes, and 0 second

Step-by-step explanation:

10 am to 1 pm is 2 hours  

and you have the 35 in which you add there for giving you the answer 2 hours, 35 minutes, and 0 second

Answer:

2 hours 35 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

0.70 divided by 1.2=0.59

0.59*1.2= 0.70

c=5.90x

Answer:

You need to divide 11/2 by 1/3 and you will have you answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]9874.35 \\ 6490.02 \\ 3384.33[/tex]

Answer:

13 days late-poor guy

Step-by-step explanation:

(702-585)/9

117/9

13

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

distance from .5 to -3 is 3.5

now add the same distance to the other side

.5 plus 3.5 is 4

Answer:

b = 73°

Step-by-step explanation:

They are vertical angles to each other.

Did you ever get the answer

Answer:

m-4n=8 divide both sides by 4.

m-n=2

There are two variables, so this is the simplest form.

Answer:

13 23 43

Step-by-step explanation:

Prime numbers are numbers that are divisible by 1 and itself or numbers that have only 2 factors which is 1 and itself.

Volume of a cylindre = area base x height

Volume of a cone = 1/3 x area base x height

V cone = 1/3 x pi x r² x h = 1/3 x 3,14 x 3² x 7

Answer:

30 feet^3

Step-by-step explanation:

2*5*3=30

V= bhw

Answer:

(a) 0.0686

(b) 0.9984

(c) 0.0016

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that a machine produces parts that are either defect free (90%), slightly defective (3%), or obviously defective (7%).

Let A, B, and C be the events of defect-free, slightly defective, and the defective parts produced by the machine.

So, from the given data:

P(A)=0.90, P(B)=0.03, and P(C)=0.07.

Let E be the event that the part is disregarded by the inspection machine.

As a part is incorrectly identified as defective and discarded 2% of the time that a defect free part is input.

So, [tex]P\left(\frac{E}{A}\right)=0.02[/tex]

Now, from the conditional probability,

[tex]P\left(\frac{E}{A}\right)=\frac{P(E\cap A)}{P(A)}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow P(E\cap A)=P\left(\frac{E}{A}\right)\times P(A)[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow P(E\cap A)=0.02\times 0.90=0.018\cdots(i)[/tex]

This is the probability of disregarding the defect-free parts by inspection machine.

Similarly,

[tex]P\left(\frac{E}{A}\right)=0.40[/tex]

and [tex]\Rightarrow P(E\cap B)=0.40\times 0.03=0.012\cdots(ii)[/tex]

This is the probability of disregarding the partially defective parts by inspection machine.

[tex]P\left(\frac{E}{A}\right)=0.98[/tex]

and [tex]\Rightarrow P(E\cap C)=0.98\times 0.07=0.0686\cdots(iii)[/tex]

This is the probability of disregarding the defective parts by inspection machine.

(a) The total probability that a part is marked as defective and discarded by the automatic inspection machine

[tex]=P(E\cap C)[/tex]

[tex]= 0.0686[/tex] [from equation (iii)]

(b) The total probability that the parts produced get disregarded by the inspection machine,

[tex]P(E)=P(E\cap A)+P(E\cap B)+P(E\cap C)[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow P(E)=0.018+0.012+0.0686[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow P(E)=0.0986[/tex]

So, the total probability that the part produced get shipped

[tex]=1-P(E)=1-0.0986=0.9014[/tex]

The probability that the part is good (either defect free or slightly defective)

[tex]=\left(P(A)-P(E\cap A)\right)+\left(P(B)-P(E\cap B)\right)[/tex]

[tex]=(0.9-0.018)+(0.03-0.012)[/tex]

[tex]=0.9[/tex]

So, the probability that a part is 'good' (either defect free or slightly defective) given that it makes it through the inspection machine and gets shipped

[tex]=\frac{\text{Probabilily that shipped part is 'good'}}{\text{Probability of total shipped parts}}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{0.9}{0.9014}[/tex]

[tex]=0.9984[/tex]

(c) The probability that the 'bad' (defective} parts get shipped

=1- the probability that the 'good' parts get shipped

=1-0.9984

=0.0016

Answer:

15%

Step-by-step explanation:

decrease in depth = 1,178 - 1,001.3 = 176.7

percentage decrease = 176.7/1,178 = 0.15 = 15%

Answer:

It is the side where the rays of the angles overlap. The "non-included" side in AAS can be either of the two sides that are not directly between the two angles being used.

Answer:

hi there friend

Step-by-step explanation:

CI=(0.431,1.0376)CI=(0.431,1.0376)

Explanation:

Given that:

The sample size , n = 7

The mean of the observation:

Mean = Sum of observation / Total number of observation

= (0.56+ 0.72+ 0.10 + 0.99 + 1.32 + 0.52 + 0.93) / 7 = 0.7343

The standard deviation:

S.D. = \sqrt {\frac {\sum_{i=1}^{i=7}(x_i-\bar{x})^2}{n-1}}S.D.=

n−1

∑

i=1

i=7

(x

i

−

x

ˉ

)

2

Calculating SD as:

S.D. = \sqrt {\frac {(0.56-0.7343)^2+(0.72-0.7343)^2+.....+(0.52-0.7343)^2+(0.93-0.7343)^2}{7-1}}S.D.=

7−1

(0.56−0.7343)

2

+(0.72−0.7343)

2

+.....+(0.52−0.7343)

2

+(0.93−0.7343)

2

SD = 0.3928

Degree of freedom = n-1 = 6

The critical value for t at 2% level of significance and 6 degree of freedom is 2.043.

So,

90 \% \ confidence\ interval=Mean\pm Z\times \frac {SD}{\sqrt {n}}90% confidence interval=Mean±Z×

n

SD

So, applying values , we get:

CI=0.7343\pm 2.043\times \frac {0.3928}{\sqrt {7}}CI=0.7343±2.043×

7

0.3928

CI=(0.431,1.0376)CI=(0.431,1.0376)

Answer:

reverse it x-15=4 do 15+4=x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = 2/3x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope intercept form is y=mx+b where m is the slope and b is the y intercept.

Given 2 points you can find the slope using (y-y1)/(x-x1)

m = (-2-4)/(-6-3) = -6/-9 = 2/3

To find b use one of the points and m and plug into the slope intercept form and then solve for b.

y=mx+b

4=2/3(3) + b

4=2 + b

b=2

Now we can write the final equation as : (plug m and b back in)

y = 2/3x + 2

To write in slope-intercept form, we must first find the slope.

  [tex]Slope = \frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1} =\frac{4-(-2)}{3-(-6)} =\frac{6}{9}=\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Now lets put into the point-slope form which requires the use of any one of the two points given which in this case can be (3,4) and the slope 2/3

 [tex]y - y_{0} =m(x-x_{0} )\\y-4=\frac{2}{3} (x-3)\\[/tex]

Now to put into the slope-intercept form, we must solve for y:

[tex]y - 4 = \frac{2}{3} x -2\\y = \frac{2}{3} x +2[/tex]

Hope that helps!

Answer:

it okay I can help you with that