ICD-10-Cm code reported for the malignant ascites is B) R18.0
ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification) is the standard used by physicians and other A systems used by healthcare providers. There are no difference between the ICD 10 CM and ICD 10. In fact, when most people talk about her ICD-10, they mean ICD-10CM. ICD-10CM is a medical code set for diagnostic coding and is used in all medical facilities in the United States under ICD-10 code R18. 0 for malignant ascites is a medical classification as described in the WHO section – Symptoms, signs, and abnormal clinical and laboratory findings, section not otherwise classified.
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What does the root word Cerebr o mean?
Root word Cerebr o mean a Prefix for denoting cerebrum .
Cerebello is known as the portion of the brain in the back of the head between the cerebrum and the brain stem. While cerebellum helps to control maintaining balance between walking and standing, and other complex motor functions. Cerebrum, is the uppermost and biggest portion of the brain.
The cerebrum also known as telencephalon, it is the largest uppermost part of the brain. Which is divided into two hemispheres . If we talk about human skull, the cerebrum lies at the top of the brainstem and the cerebellum lies underneath the rear portion.
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15. A hematinic tablet contains 525 mg of fer-
rous sulfate, which is equivalent to 105 mg
of elemental iron. How many grains each
of ferrous sulfate and elemental iron would
a patient receive from one tablet?
A patient would receive from one tablet 8.1 grains of ferrous sulfate and 1.6 grains of elemental iron.
What is hematinic tablet?This refers to an iron supplement used to treat or prevent low blood levels of iron for example those caused by anemia or pregnancy. Iron is a very vital mineral that the body needs to produce red blood cells and keep you in good health.
Solving for the quantities of ferrous sulfate and elemental iron, we have:
A grain is a unit of measurement for mass in the traditional system, equal to exactly 64.79891 milligrams.
One tablet of ferrous sulfate contains 525 mg, so it would contain 525/64.79891 = 8.1 grains of ferrous sulfate.
One tablet contains 105 mg of elemental iron, so it would contain 105/64.79891 = 1.6 grains of elemental iron.
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Multivitamin-mineral supplements are generally NOT recommended for which of the following groups of people?healthy individuals wanting to boost their energy levelshealthy people need booster to support her healthindividual with low energy need suplement
In general, multivitamin-mineral pills are not advised for healthy people looking to increase their level of energy.
Who ought to consume multivitamin and mineral supplements?People who are staunch vegetarians or vegans, those on low-calorie diets, those with limited appetites, or those who don't obtain enough vitamins and minerals from food alone may want to think about taking an MVM. Patients with certain medical issues may also receive MVM recommendations from healthcare professionals. Vitamins, minerals, and herbal supplements, also referred to as botanicals, are typical dietary supplements.
Are all multivitamins safe to take?Not everyone should take multivitamins, and some people may even be harmed by them. The elderly are one group who may benefit from multivitamins, though. With age, vitamin B12 absorption may decline.
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What is the ICD-10-CM code for cervical stenosis?
According to the WHO's list of dorsopathies, the ICD-10 code M48. 02 for spinal stenosis, cervical area is a medical diagnosis.
A cervical spinal canal that is stenotic has become narrower. The symptoms of cervical radiculopathy or cervical myelopathy may be brought on by this spinal canal constriction, which may result in compression of the spinal cord and/or nerve roots and disrupt the function of the spinal cord or the nerve.
Spinal stenosis can come from degenerative changes brought on by spondylosis in the cervical spine, but it can also be brought on by trauma, such as fractures and instability, inflammatory diseases, herniated discs, or tumors.
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what is the eight diagnosis codes ccs mock exam
CCS compresses the International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, Clinical Modification diagnostic and procedure codes (IDC-10-CM).
The patient has a dislocated shoulder, according to the radiology report, and the diagnosis is shoulder pain. The four-hour tough exam consists of 97 multiple-choice questions and eight medical scenarios.The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality's CCS is a method for grouping patient diagnoses and treatments into a manageable number of clinically significant categories (AHRQ, formerly known as the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research). The AAPC Certified Medical Coders (CPC) Test Pattern has undergone a number of changes for 2022.
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the state of physical, emotional or mental exhaustion (stress) from trying to make sense of so much information combined with doubts about value of the information is called information
The state of physical, emotional or mental exhaustion (stress) from trying to make sense of so much information combined with doubts about value of the information is called Burnout.
Burn-out is defined as a syndrome caused by continuous professional stress that has not been adequately controlled. It has three dimensions: emotions of energy depletion or tiredness, increasing mental detachment from one's employment, or sentiments of negativism or cynicism about one's job, and. Burnout is a state of emotional, mental, and, in some cases, physical fatigue caused by prolonged or repetitive stress.
Burnout is commonly caused by a lack of social support, taking on more than one can bear at job, school, or interpersonally with family and friends, and poor self-care. Burnout is a major problem. Burnout is a state of mental and physical weariness.
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What non-visceral effectors that are controlled by the ANS?
Cardiac muscle, or the heart muscles, is one of the non-visceral effectors regulated by the ANS.
What organs are under the ANS's control?System of the autonomic nervous: The autonomic nervous system is the portion of the nervous system that supplies the internal organs, such as the sweat, salivary, and digestive glands, blood vessels, stomach, gut, liver, kidneys, bladder, genitals, lungs, and pupils. Skeletal muscle is not an autonomic nervous system effector.
What do the ANS's effectors do?The SNS uses acetylcholine (ACh), whereas the ANS uses either norepinephrine (NE) or NE. Adipose tissue, cardiac muscle glands, and smooth muscle are the ANS effectors, whereas skeletal muscles are the SNS effectors.
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the nurse teaches a teenager who is undergoing chemotheraphy about the need for special mouth care which statement by the teenager leads the nurse to conclude
The nurse concluded the teen's statement that he was currently experiencing side effects from chemotherapy.
What is chemotherapy?Chemotherapy is the use of chemicals to treat disease. In modern usage, the term refers almost exclusively to cytostatic drugs used to treat cancer.
The chemotherapy process is carried out by inhibiting cancer cell division, attacking the nutritional sources of cancer cells, and triggering the death of cancer cells automatically.
In addition to having therapeutic effects, chemotherapy can also cause side effects. The side effects of chemotherapy that are often found in children are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fatigue, damage to the nervous system, constipation, damage to hair follicles, risk of infection, and oral health problems, such as oral mucositis, so special care for oral hygiene is needed.
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what is the medical term for inflammation of a vein?
The medical term for inflammation of a vein is "phlebitis." Phlebitis refers to the swelling and irritation of a vein, usually in the legs, and can be caused by various factors, including blood clots, infection, injury, or the use of intravenous (IV) catheters.
What are the symptoms of phlebitis?Phlebitis can cause symptoms such as pain, redness, warmth, and swelling along the affected vein, as well as fatigue and tenderness. In some cases, it can lead to the formation of a blood clot, which can be serious and potentially life-threatening if it travels to the lungs.
How can phlebitis be treated?Treatment for phlebitis may involve anti-inflammatory medications, compression stockings, and elevation of the affected limb to reduce swelling. In some cases, anticoagulant medications may be necessary to prevent the formation of blood clots.
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Gayle is 42 years old, single, and does not plan to marry. She has taught school for 20 years and plans to retire in 12 more years. Last year, Gayle began to contribute to a teacher's retirement plan and to an individual retirement account (IRA). She is in good health, and she has several hobbies, including reading, embroidery, gardening, and bowling. She attends an aerobic dance class three times each week and has done so for years. Gayle has a family history of diabetes, so she takes her health seriously. Gayle is beginning to notice some age-related changes in her body, but she accepts them as normal. She has a good network of friends that she vacations with every year. She likes to travel and enjoys life.
Gayle's activity level will help protect her from experiencing all of the following as she ages EXCEPT
A. type 2 diabetes.
B. osteoporosis.
C. loss of fluid intelligence.
D. declines in vision and hearing.
Gayle's activity level will basically not help in protecting her from loss of fluid intelligence.
The correct option is option c.
Fluid intelligence is basically defined as the ability to be able to solve novel reasoning problems and it is basically correlated with a number of different important skills such as problem-solving, comprehension, and learning. Fluid intelligence happens to peak at around age 20 and then it gradually declines.
This decline in the fluid intelligence may be related to the local atrophy of the brain, basically in the right cerebellum, a lack of practice, or result of age-related changes which occur in the brain. The declines in fluid intelligence are basically correlated with declines in the ability to live as well as function independently.
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should recognize that the client understands the teaching when he identifies which of the following as manifestations of hypoglycemia?
Blurred vision, tachycardia, moist, clammy skin
The nurse should recognize that the client understands their teaching about type 2 diabetes mellitus when he identifies the blurred vision, tachycardia, moist, and clammy skin as manifestations of hypoglycemia.
Hypoglycemia or low blood sugar is a condition where the blood sugar level is lower than the standard range. Since glucose is the body's main source of energy, the lack of it may cause headaches, nausea, hunger, fatigue, dizziness, and even loss of coordination and seizures.
People who take insulin to treat their diabetes may experience hypoglycemia symptoms if they take too much insulin or not eating enough carbs for the amount of insulin taken.
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what is the name of the device for recording through the heart's ultrasonic sound waves
The Acronym SAFER can help you remember how to safely use what kind of drugs?
People regularly use the abbreviation SAFER to help them remember how to utilize over-the-counter drugs prescription safety.
The definition of a drug's therapeutic defensive driving tactics employing S.A.F.E.R., which stands for Space, Attitude, Awareness, Eyesight, and Responsibility, is the difference between the median ideal dosage and the median harmful dose.
We include S.A.F.E.R. into our training by that, preventing crashes, stop more quickly, and allow ourselves more time to respond if we give other cars greater space. Attitude is represented by "A." By utilizing the abbreviation SAFER, you may keep in mind how to use over-the-counter drugs safely.
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what formula to Drops per minute (DPM)
The formula for calculating drops per minute (DPM) is Total milliliters (Volume) ÷ Total minutes (Time) x drip factor in gtt/ml. DPM is calculated to analyze the IV flow rate.
DPM is the calculated value used to assign the flow rate of IVs. This is calculated so that only a specific amount of drug or infusion rate can be decided to be administered into the patient.
IV stands for Intravenous. It is the process of administration of drugs or certain fluids into the body by injecting a small and flexible tube into the veins. This method can be used for several treatment like treating dehydration, maintaining osmotic balance of the body, etc.
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A medical assistant with ____ will adhere to a code of values.
a. discretion
b. empathy
c. integrity
d. group think
A medical assistant with "integrity" will adhere to a code of values.
Integrity refers to the adherence to moral and ethical principles, honesty, and consistency in one's beliefs and actions.
Why is it important for medical assistants to maintain integrity?Medical assistants need to maintain a high level of integrity in the medical field, as they play a crucial role in patient care and may be entrusted with confidential and sensitive information.
What are code of values for a medical assistant?There are several codes of values that a medical assistant may be expected to adhere to as part of their professional role. Some of the most common are Patient-centered Care, Confidentiality, Ethics, Collaboration, etc. The specific values will vary depending on the employer and the specific role, but it is important for medical assistants to understand and adhere to these principles in order to provide high-quality, patient-centered care.
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What is the ICD-10 code for walking difficulty?
R26.2 is the ICD-10 code for walking difficulties.
The International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision (ICD-10) is a medical classification system that is used to categorize and code illnesses, symptoms, and other medical situations.
R26.2 is a code of walking difficulties in the chapter Symptoms, symptoms, and aberrant clinical and laboratory results that are not described elsewhere (R00-R99). It particularly refers to walking difficulties, which might include balance, coordination, weakness, or discomfort that makes walking difficult.
Medical personnel may readily detect and track the occurrence of walking difficulties in patients using the ICD-10 code, which can be useful for therapy and research. It is critical to highlight that the ICD-10 code should only be assigned by a registered healthcare practitioner once the patient has been examined.
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Which of the following properly applies an ethical principle to justify access to health care? (select all that apply) 1. Access to health care reflects the commitment of society to principles of beneficence and justice. 2. If low income compromises access to care, respect for autonomy is compromised. 3. Access to health care is a privilege in the United States, not a right. 4. Poor access to affordable health care causes harm that is ethically troubling because nonmaleficence is a basic principle of health care ethics.
The following properly applies an ethical principle to justify access to health care:
1. Access to health care reflects the commitment of society to principles of beneficence and justice.
2. If low income compromises access to care, respect for autonomy is compromised.
3. Poor access to affordable health care causes harm that is ethically troubling because nonmaleficence is a basic principle of health care ethics.
Access to health care is an ethical problem that is supported by a number of ethical standards. The first statement emphasises the concepts of beneficence and justice, implying that society has a duty to provide healthcare to all persons. The second statement recognises that poor poverty might limit access to healthcare, undermining the value of autonomy - an individual's freedom to make informed health decisions. The final point emphasises the significance of nonmaleficence, or the concept of avoiding damage, and implies that a lack of inexpensive healthcare might cause harm, making it morally problematic.
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What is Melan/o in medical terms?
In medical terms, "Melan/o" refers to the prefix that is used to denote black Or dark pigmentation.
This prefix is commonly used in medical terms related to the skin, eyes, And hair, which are all structures that can contain melanin, a dark Pigment That gives them their color. For example, melanoma is a type of Skin Cancer that arises from the cells that produce melanin, while Melanin itself Is the pigment responsible for determining skin color.
The prefix "Melan/o" can also be used in other medical terms, such as "Melancholia," which is a mood disorder characterized by a prolonged State of sadness or depression.
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Sociologists argue that, unlike scientific knowledge, common sense conclusions are
A. not published.
B. not reliable.
C. easily disseminated.
D. not politically correct.
Sociologists argue that, unlike scientific knowledge, common sense conclusions are Not reliable. Option B is correct.
Sociology is based on data, whereas common sense is based on assumptions. Empirical testing has no place in common sense knowledge, yet sociology conducts empirical study. Common sense information is not always consistent.
The scientific method, with its methodical approach, has proven effective in structuring social investigations. The scientific method provides a systematic, planned sequence of stages that aid in the exploration of a social problem by ensuring impartiality and consistency. They enable precision, dependability, and validity. Sociology is not synonymous with common sense.
The interactionist viewpoint, the conflict perspective, and the functionalist perspective are the three basic sociological theories that new students learn about. And each has its own unique explanation for various aspects of society and human behaviour within it.
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Blood Administration ATI: ReflectionTake notes here to describe the strengths and weaknesses of your own submission based on your review of the expert answer.
Even though I missed some of the final evaluations of the real blood unit, my response was still rather compelling when compared to the expert's.
What weaknesses should I mention?As a recap, the four responses you can provide in response to the question "What are your greatest weaknesses?" are: I get caught up in the minutiae too much, I have problems saying no occasionally, and I've previously struggled to ask for help.
What are your personal weak points?These are either your own difficulties or the things you are aware of as a struggle. For instance, I am aware that I’m not even very strong and that I struggle to speak up for myself. I have to work on my personal flaws all the time.
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can you take nighttime cold medicine during the day?
What are the recommendations for when combining balance and moderation?
Make choices from all 5-food groups and choose the more nutrient dese option, and understand the recommending portions (some vegetables are the exception)
5 food groups: Grains, fruit, vegetables, dairy, and meats
When combining balance and moderation in your diet, the recommendations are:
1. Make choices from all 5 food groups: Incorporate a variety of foods from each food group in your diet. This will ensure that you are getting all the essential nutrients that your body needs to function properly.
2. Choose the more nutrient-dense options: Option for foods that are more nutrient-dense and contain a higher amount of vitamins, minerals, and other essential nutrients per serving. Examples include whole grains, fresh fruits and vegetables, lean proteins, and low-fat dairy products.
3. Understand the recommended portions: Be mindful of portion sizes when choosing foods from each food group. Use tools like measuring cups, food scales, or visual aids to help you understand appropriate serving sizes.
4. Make vegetables a priority: While all food groups are important, vegetables should be a priority in your diet as they provide essential vitamins and minerals, as well as fiber. Aim for a variety of colorful vegetables and include them in every meal.
5. Moderation is key: While it is important to incorporate all food groups into your diet, it is also important to practice moderation. This means being mindful of portion sizes and avoiding excessive consumption of foods high in added sugars, saturated fats, and sodium.
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what are the main medications used for pleural disease?
If there is an infection, antibiotics. To treat pain and lessen swelling or inflammation, doctors often prescribe steroids and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.
What therapy is most effective for pleural effusion?Treatments. Drainage of liquid. Pleural effusion symptoms can be reduced by draining fluid from the chest cavity, which also helps the lungs expand more fully. Thoracentesis is one minimally invasive drainage technique that includes putting a needle into the chest cavity to drain the extra fluid.
Which medications are preferred for pleural effusion?The phrase "drug of choice" (DOC) refers to a substance abuser's preferred drug. Because substance users sometimes match diagnostic criteria for dependence on various drugs, this information frequently enhances the clinical picture of the patient.
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What is idiosyncratic drug reaction?
Answer:
Effects that happen unpredictably
Explanation:
Idiosyncratic drug reactions may be defined as adverse effects that cannot be explained by the known mechanisms of action of the offending agent, do not occur at any dose in most patients, and develop mostly unpredictably in susceptible individuals only.
You have been assigned to get Mrs. Chen out of bed to the commode, She has right sided weakness due to a past CVA. What do you need to remember when getting her out of bed?
Transfer her by leading with the right side
Transfer her by leading with her left side
Place the commode on the right side of the bed
Place the commode at the foot of the bed
Answer:
Transfer her by leading with her left side.
which of the following is determined by the percentage of sperm which are normal in shape and size? responses
The percentage of normally-shaped and sized sperm is determined by sperm morphology, which is an important factor in male fertility and the ability to conceive a child. Thus, Option D holds true.
In humans, the morphology of sperm is an important factor in determining male fertility. Sperm morphology refers to the shape and size of sperm and is often measured as the percentage of sperm that appear normal under a microscope. Sperm with abnormal morphology can have reduced motility and may be unable to fertilize an egg.
Therefore an analysis of sperm morphology is an important part of a semen analysis, which is often performed as part of male infertility testing. By assessing sperm morphology, doctors can gain insights into a mans reproductive health and the likelihood of successful conception.
This question should be provided with the options, which are:
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A nurse is caring for a client who has named a person to serve as his health care proxy. The client states he needs clarification about his type of advance directive. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for clarification?
"I have to choose a family member as my health proxy"
The client's statement indicates a need for clarification because the kind of advance directive does not always necessitate the selection of a family member as a health proxy.
When a client is unable to make their own medical decisions, a health care proxy is designated to act on their behalf. This someone might be a friend, neighbour, or lawyer; a family member is not required.
The client should be made aware that they have the option to select a person as their health care proxy, and that their decision should be based on the person they feel most confident would act in their best interests.
Additionally, the client has to be made aware that they have the option to substitute a different person for their current health care proxy at any moment if they think that person is more qualified for the position.
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What is the ICD-10 code for acute bacterial conjunctivitis?
The ICD-10 code for acute bacterial conjunctivitis is H10. 021
Bacterial conjunctivitis is an infection of the lining of the eye, the conjunctiva that extends from the back of the eyelid (palpebral conjunctiva and tarsal conjunctiva) to the vault and bulbar conjunctiva (bulbar conjunctiva) until it fuses with the cornea of the cornea. edge. H10.021 is a billable/specific ICD-10 CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes. 2023 version of ICD-10-CM H10. 021 entered into force on October 1, 2022. Staphylococcal species are the most common causative agents of bacterial conjunctivitis in adults, followed by Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilus influenza. There are five main types of conjunctivitis. Viral, bacterial, allergenic, toxic, non-specific.
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What are body regions in anatomy?
The entire body is divided into regions in anatomy as: head, neck, thorax, abdomen, upper, and lower extremities.
Anatomy is defined as the branch of science dealing with the internal structures and working of a living body. Anatomy involves the study of both macroscopic as well as microscopic structures. And is therefore termed as gross anatomy and histology study respectively.
The abdomen or abdominal region is the part of the body consisting of most of the vital organs, namely, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, spleen, gallbladder, pancreas, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, kidneys, ureters, bladder, as well as blood vessels.
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Medicare supplement policies cannot establish a new deductible for waiting period for the recurrence of a condition for which treatment was given within 6 months. is called___
A new deductible for a waiting period for the return of a condition for which treatment was received within 6 months cannot be established by Medicare supplement policies. is referred to as Recurrent Conditions (NAIC MEDICARE).
A Medicare Advantage Plan is distinct from Medigap coverage. While Medigap coverage merely augments your Original Medicare benefits, those plans are options to receive Medicare benefits. the regular payment for health or prescription medication coverage made to Medicare, an insurance provider, or a health care plan.
Private companies that provide Medicare Supplement Insurance policies can assist you in covering some of the copayments, coinsurance, and deductibles that Original Medicare does not cover.
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