Melissa ran at a constant speed of 509.056 meters in 62.08 seconds. How far did Melissa run in one second?

Answer:

I pretty sure the answer is ASA, I hope it's right!

Answer: 44/7

Step-by-step explanation:     Hope it helps pls give brainliest

6 2/7= ?/7

multiply 6 by 7

= 6 2/7= 42/7

add 42 and 2= 44

= 44/7

The given mixed number 6 2/7 expressed as an improper fraction is 44/7.

The given mixed numbers s as follows:

6 2/7

To convert the mixed number 6 2/7 to an improper fraction, we can follow these steps:

Multiply the whole number (6) by the denominator (7).

⇒ 6 x 7 = 42

Add the product from Step 1 to the numerator (2).

⇒ 42 + 2 = 44

Write the sum from Step 2 as the new numerator over the denominator (7).

The improper fraction equivalent of 6 2/7 is 44/7.

Therefore, 6 2/7 expressed as an improper fraction is 44/7.

Learn more about the fraction here:

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Answer:

1. 7/12

2. 6  2/5

3. 18/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1st is 7/12

2nd is 6and 2/5

3rd is answer is not shown

Step-by-step explanation: Brainliest pls

hope this helped

Answer:

d) No, it is not a proportional relationship because the graph does not go through the origin

Step-by-step explanation:

A proportional relationship has to pass through the origin (0,0)

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  A.  Multiplication with 3×3 matrices

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiplication with real or complex numbers is commutative. Matrix multiplication is not commutative, in general.

Answer: only one line

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:  Aaron was at the sitter for 5 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

12x + 10 = 58

the 12x is for each hour after the first hour and the 10 is the first hour

-10 from each side

12x = 48

/12

x = 4

4 additional hours plus the original hour

Answer:

It would be 16 men.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the number of men dig a pond in 6 day be x. Then,

It is a case of inverse variation.

12 × 8 = 6x

=> 96 = 6x

=> x = 96/6

=> x = 16

Hence, 16 men can dig a pond in 6 days.

Answer:

Answer is 16…..

12 men take 8 days for digging a pond, so we use simple method to solve this problem.

We multiple the both things that is 12 and 8 then get 96 is the result which is equal to multiple of 6 days and ?Men then get 16 men

Step-by-step explanation:

I literally put it on the comments lol

Answer:

3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Please give brainliest!

Answer:

C.) y=-2/3+4

Step-by-step explanation:

You can look at the y-intercept to find the equation really quickly!

For example, the line crosses the y-axis at the value of 4, therefore, the y-intercept is 4.

The only option with a y-intercept of 4 is C

Answer:

4 and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

xy = 20

x + y = 9 ⇒ x = 9 - y

y(9 - y) = 20

9y - y² = 20

y² - 9y + 20 = 0

D = ( - 9)² - 4(1)(20) = 81 - 80 = 1

[tex]y_{1}[/tex] = (9 + 1) ÷ 2 = 5

[tex]y_{2}[/tex] = (9 - 1) ÷ 2 = 4

The numbers are 4 and 5

Answer:

|| slope= 1/3

⊥ slope=-3

Step-by-step explanation:

The line is y=1/3x+5

Parallel slopes are the same (think about parallel lines and how they will never intersect- that means that slopes of those lines will never intersect so they have to be the same)

That means that the || slope will be 1/3.

Perpendicular slopes are negative and reciprocal (if you multiply them, they will equal -1)

Which means to solve for the slope perpendicular, use this equation

1/3m=-1

multiply by 3 on both sides

m=-3

So that means the ⊥ slope will be -3.

hope this helps!

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] and - 3

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

y = [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] x + 5 ← is in slope- intercept form

with slope m = [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Parallel lines have equal slopes, thus

[tex]m_{parallel}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Give a line with slope m then the slope of a line perpendicular to it is

[tex]m_{perpendicular}[/tex] = - [tex]\frac{1}{m}[/tex] = - [tex]\frac{1}{\frac{1}{3} }[/tex] = - 3

Answer:

153.94cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️

[tex]Area = \pi \times ({radius})^{2} [/tex]

[tex]Area = \pi \times ({7})^{2} [/tex]

[tex]Area = \pi \times 49[/tex]

[tex]Area = 49\pi[/tex]

Done...

♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️

Answer:

-0.08 YW <3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.08

Step-by-step explanation:

Use a calculator!

Answer:

A = $697.09

Step-by-step explanation:

A = P (1 + r/n)

A = 600 (1 + 0.05/365)

A = $697.09

======================================================

Work Shown:

[tex]\log_{4}(x+10)+\log_{4}(x-2)=\log_{4}(64)\\\\\log_{4}\left((x+10)(x-2)\right)=\log_{4}(64)\\\\(x+10)(x-2)=64\\\\x^2-2x+10x-20=64\\\\x^2-2x+10x-20-64=0\\\\[/tex]

[tex]x^2+8x-84=0\\\\(x+14)(x-6)=0\\\\x+14=0 \ \text{ or } \ x-6=0\\\\x=-14 \ \text{ or } \ x=6\\\\[/tex]

Those are the possible solutions, but plugging x = -14 back into the original equation will lead to an error. So we rule x = -14 out

x = 6 works as a solution however

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

.15 or 15%

Step-by-step explanation:

5+8+4+3=20

3 purple marbles/20 total marbles= .15

Answer:

49

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

V of a sphere is (4/3)*pi*r³, and because we have 3 scoops

V = 3* (4/3) * 3.14 * 4³ = 4* 3.14 * 4³ = 803.84 cm³

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation: if 4 students joined ur adding to the class hope this helps :)

Answer:

The answer is D.

The y-intercept of the line is 1

Using the slope - intercept relation :

Substituting the values into the relation :

7 = 3(2) + c

7 = 6 + c

c = 7 - 6

c = 1

Therefore, the y-intercept of the line is 1.

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Answer:

C-7/8

R-8/9

P-61/66

L-11/18

I-3/4

A-7/12

O-47/55

H-29/40

S-28/33

T-4/5

M-11/12

E-71/84

U-13/42

N-19/20

I swear to god if I don’t get brainliest I’m going to lose it I haven’t done this math in like four years and it kinda took a while.... but I hope it helped u ☺️☺️☺️❤️❤️❤️❤️

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I-9/12 or 3/4

T- 8/10 or 4/5

C- 7/8

A- 7/12

M- 11/12

R- 7/9

O- 36/55

E- 71/84

P- 61/66

H- 29/40

U- 13/42

L- 11/18

S- 28/33

N- 19/20

Step-by-step explanation:

if any are wrong, just lmk and i'll see what I did. But, i'm pretty sure they're right

Answer:

B is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A) 8*25=200 less 2x15= $170

Part B 3*25 = $75 less 6x15= $90- Total loss $15 (75-90)

etc

Answer:

1. A'B'C'

(2, 4) (4, 10) (14, 2)

A''B''C'' (2, 8) (8, 14) (14, 6)

2. D'E'F'G

(-6, 3) (-9, 3) (-6, 12) (-9, 12)

D''E''F''G'' (-2, 1) (-3, 1) (-2, 4) (-3, 4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok. So, when you are dialating, you first step is to determine wether it is bigger or smaller. If the scale factor is more than one, it is an enlargment or getting bigger. If it is less than 1, it is a reduction and getting smaller. Then, it is just math. Lets say that the point is (2, 4) and your scale factor is 2. Multiply 2 times 2 to get 4. Then multiply 4 times 2 to get 8. Your new cordinante is (4, 8).

You are not stupid you can do it!

Answer:

[tex]5110, 5111, 5112[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let [tex]x=[/tex] first consecutive number

[tex]x + (x+1)+(x+2) = 15333[/tex] ([tex]x[/tex] is the first number, [tex]x+1[/tex] would be the second consecutive number of the sequence, and [tex]x+2[/tex] would be the third)

[tex]3x + 3 = 15333[/tex]

[tex]3x = 15330[/tex]

[tex]x = 5110[/tex]

[tex]x+1 = 5110+1[/tex]

[tex]= 5111[/tex]

[tex]x+2 = 5110 + 2[/tex]

[tex]= 5112[/tex]

[tex]\therefore[/tex] the consecutive numbers that sum up to [tex]15333[/tex] are [tex]5110, 5111,[/tex] and [tex]5112[/tex]

Hope this helps :)