please help me answer the question in the image

Answer:

7/11

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the only fraction without a 1 in its numerator.

Answer:7/11

Step-by-step explanation: unit fractions have 1 unit like 1/2 1/3 1/100 but 7/11 is not have 1 numerator

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

well, 1% of 1999.8=19.998, so it would be + - 1,999.99

Answer: No more than 8.8 pounds.

Step-by-step explanation: Let x be the weight that Lorrie can add to carry-on.

We are told that an airline charges an extra fee if a carry-on bag weighs more than 30 pounds. After packing, Lorrie’s carry-on weighs 21.2 pounds. The inequality that will represent the the amount of weight Lorrie can add to the carry-on without going over the 30-pound limit is:

Let us solve for x by subtracting 21.2 from both sides of our inequality.

We can see that the weight Lorrie can add to the carry-on should be less than or equal to 8.8 pounds without going over the 30 pound limit. Therefore, the weight that Lorrie can add to the carry-on should be no more than 8.8 pounds.

Answer:

Nine more than two-fifths of a number is nine.

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that the total will be 9, and that 2/5x is equivalent to 2/5 of a number (so it should be 2/5n) and we are adding 9 more.

Answer:

4x2=8

Step-by-step explanation:

This equation is simple and easy cause its base sick math

Answer:

[tex]7x + 3 \\ [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

All sides in an equilateral triangle are equal so factor out three and you are left with the length of each side.

[tex]3(7x + 3)[/tex]

red and green

they go in the same direction, side by side, and will never touch

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

30°C

Step-by-step explanation:

The Conversion Formula :-

F is given to be 86.

Substitution

Answer:

Sample Response: To find the celsius temperature, substitute 86 for F in the formula. Then, use the order of operations to simplify. Substract 32 from 86. Then multiply 5 9 by 54 to get 30°C.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

30%

Step-by-step explanation:

So she spun the spinner 30 times so we divide the number of times she got solid by the 30 to get the answer in a percentage :)

9/30 = 0.3

Now we multiply the 0.3 by 100 to get it as a percent!

0.3 x 100 = 30%

Now you know how to find the probability of an object!

Have a great day!!

Please rate and mark brainliest!!

Explanation:

Count the tally marks for the "solid" in the middle row. The first portion is a group of 5 as shown by the slash mark. The second portion of that row is one short of five, so it's another 4 tallies. Overall, we have 5+4 = 9 tallies for the "solid".

This is out of 30 spins total. Therefore, we arrive at 9/30 = (3*3)/(3*10) = 3/10

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

definite integral from 0-2 of root x dx

root x = x^½

integral of x^½ = ⅔x^(3/2)

Answer:

f(-1)=2(-1)³-3(-1)²+7 = 2

f(1)=2(1)³-3(1)²+7 = 6

f(2)=2(2)³-3(2)²+7 = 11

Answer:

One above me is correct 100% :)

Step-by-step explanation:

The greatest possible value of the perimeter of the triangle is 48

The perimeter of a triangle is the sum of the lengths of the three sides of the triangle.

An isosceles triangle has 2 equal sides and the length of the 2 sides must be greater than the length of one.

Perimeter A= 12×2+18=42

Perimeter B= 12+18×2=48

Therefore the greatest possible perimeter of the triangle is Perimeter B (48) since the sum of lengths of the two equal sides(18) is greater than the third side (12) and 48 is greater than 42.

Please read more about perimeter of triangle here:

https://brainly.com/question/15211769

Answer:

D (last one)

Step-by-step explanation:

You figure out the ordered pair for E which is (3,-4)

Then you apply the rule given in the instructions.

so you do 3+8= 11 so x = 11

then -4+5= 1 so y = 1

So you get (11,1)

Answer: 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/72

Step-by-step explanation:

multiple the numerators and denominators by each other so 1*1 = 1 and 8*9 = 72

Answer:

(c) [tex]\displaystyle 10\:cm.[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Split each diagonal in half and use the Pythagorean Theorem:

[tex]\displaystyle a^2 + b^2 = c^2 \\ \\ 8^2 + 6^2 = c^2 \hookrightarrow 64 + 36 = c^2 \hookrightarrow \sqrt{100} = \sqrt{c^2} \\ \\ \boxed{10 = c}[/tex]

I am joyous to assist you at any time.

Diagonals of a rhombus are perpendicular to each other .

We need Side

Use Pythagorean theorem

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail H^2=P^2+B^2[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail H^2=6^2+8^2[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail H^2=10^2[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail H=10cm[/tex]

Answer:

a is the write ansere

Step-by-step explanation:

please mar me brainliest

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm 95.1% sure

Answer:

have a good day

Step-by-step explanation:

rump 2020

Answer:

D = 2mt

Step-by-step explanation:

D = (2m × 2t)/2

[tex] \sf \: d \: = \frac{2m \times t(2)}{2} [/tex]

[tex] \rightarrow \: \sf \: d = \frac{2m \times 2t}{2} [/tex]

[tex] \rightarrow \: \sf \: d = \frac{4mt}{2} [/tex]

[tex] \rightarrow \: \sf \: d = 2mt[/tex]

~Done~

------

Answer:

6<L<30

Step-by-step explanation:

because we know that the third side needs to be in between the sum of the other two it has to be less than 30 and then because it needs to apply to the other sides it is greater then 18-12 or 6.

Answer:

A makes 10 parts in 1 hour

B makes 4 parts in 1 hour.

then,

A makes 120 parts in a hour.

B makes 48 parts in a hour

Hope this helps!

Mark Brainlest!!!!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of circle= πr²

Start by finding the radius:

Diameter= 2(radius)

4= 2(radius)

radius= 4 ÷2

radius= 2 ft

Area of circular wall hanging

= 3.14(2²)

= 3.14(4)

= 12.56

= 12.6 ft² (nearest tenth)

Thus, option B is correct.

Answer:

around 2.31

Step-by-step explanation:

because you will get 2.307 if you put it in a calculator then you can round it to 2.31

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope intercept form is

y = ax + b

"a" being the slope, "b" being the y- intercept (which is the y-value when x = 0).

the slope here :

in the table x is always increasing by 2.

and y is always investing by 1.

so, the slope is 1/2

the y-intercept :

we need to find the y-value for x = 0.

but we don't have a data point with x = 0 in the table.

so, we have to extend the structure of the table to the left.

x decreases by 2 (making it 0), and y decreases by 1 (making it -1).

therefore, the y- intercept (b) is -1.

and the line equation is

y = (1/2)x - 1

not sure about "the other method".

there is the point-slope form of the equation :

y - y1 = a(x - x1)

again with "a" begin the slope, and (x1, y1) being a point on the line.

if we get the y-intercept in the table, then this point is (0, y1).

and the equation would be

y - y1 = ax

in our case

y + 1 = (1/2)x

and another method ?

sometimes people write

nx + my = c

in our case starting with the original equation

y = (1/2)x - 1

2y = x - 2

-x + 2y = -2

x - 2y = 2

Answer:

Use tan trig ratio:

[tex]\sf tan(\theta)=\dfrac{O}{A}[/tex]

where [tex]\theta[/tex] is the angle, O is the side opposite the angle, and A is the side adjacent the angle

Given:

Substituting these values into the formula:

[tex]\implies \tan(39)=\dfrac{10}{x}[/tex]

Multiplying both sides by [tex]x[/tex]:

[tex]\implies x\tan(39)=10[/tex]

Dividing both sides by [tex]\tan(39)[/tex] :

[tex]\implies x=\dfrac{10}{\tan(39)}[/tex]

[tex]\implies x=12.34897157...[/tex]

[tex]\implies x=12.3 \ \textsf{(nearest tenth)}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail tan\theta=\dfrac{Perpendicular}{Base}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail tan51=\dfrac{x}{10}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail x=10tan51[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail x=10(1.2348971565350)[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail x=12.348971565350[/tex]

Answer:

Center: (1,−4)

Radius: 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Each partner's share given a first-year net income of $102,800 is $-3,300.

Each partner's share given a first-year net loss of $20,800 is $-44,300.

Partner' share = net income / loss - interest - salary salary allowance

Interest = ($64000 x 10%) + ($94000x 10%) = $15,800

Salary = $52,000 + $41,600 = $93,600

Share of net income = [$102,800 - (15,800 + 93600)] / 2  = $-3,300

Share of net loss = [-20,800 - (15,800 + 93600)] / 2 = $-44,300

To learn more about profit, please check: https://brainly.com/question/26181966