Pls help ASAP for BRAINLIEST

Answer:

C.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1). Length of diagonals = 52

2). m∠KON = 103°, m∠KMN = 45°

Step-by-step explanation:

KLMN is a rectangle.

Diagonals KM and LN intersect at point O.

1). Since, diagonals of the rectangle equally bisect each other.

   KM = 2(KO)

   KM = 2(4y + 6)

   And LN = 2(ON)

   LN = 2(3y + 11)

   Since, length of diagonals of a rectangle are equal in measure.

   2(4y + 6) = 2(3y + 11)

   4y + 6 = 3y + 11

   4y - 3y = 11 - 6

   y = 5

   Therefore, length of diagonals = 2(3y + 11)

                                                       = 2(15 + 11)

                                                       = 52 units

2). m∠NKM = 32°

    Since, m∠KNM = 90° [internal angle of a rectangle]

    And diagonal LN bisects this angle,

    m∠KNO = 45°

    In ΔKNO,

    m(∠NKM) + m(∠KNO) + m(KON) = 180°

    32° + 45° + m∠KON = 180°

    m∠KON = 180° - 77°

                   = 103°

    Since, m∠KMN = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex](m∠LMN)

    m∠KMN = [tex]\frac{1}{2}(90)[/tex] = 45°

Answer:

Did u submit ur answer?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

h=2Ab

Step-by-step explanation:

if you divide b on both sides you get Ab=1/2h

Then you would divide by 1/2 which is the same as multiplying by 2 which gives you the final answer of h=2Ab

Answer:

1. 3 hours

2. i cant figure this one out

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Haha

Step-by-step explanation:

ghgewucjbauierfyucierh kjaluchliaucwa bb

wrgwrgweg

ttrtrtttgb

trbtgrbgttr

bheetbg

etbnhtehg

bertertgetfhjgeyfguiwrehodvqeiir

rgeyshudfvr8ov

Answ

Step-by-step explanation:

3200%

Step-by-step explanation:

I Hope it helps you . Hope it will

Answer:X=28

Step-by-step explanation:

first you combine the like terms wich are x and 5x also -6 and 18

second your equation will be 6x+12=180

Third you subtract 12 from each side

4th you divide each side by 6 to simplify the x

5th your anwse would be x =28

Answer: the number -5 is a real number

Real numbers are both negative and positive numbers. -5 is a negative number. Since real numbers include negative numbers, -5 is the answer.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

the number -5 is a real number

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.42857142857

Step-by-step explanation:

correct me if im wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

let x be the original.price

so x * 75/100= 14625

x=19500

so the price of car before it was reduced was 19500

The price of the car before it was reduced is £19500.

A ratio or value that may be stated as a fraction of 100 is called a percentage. And it is represented by the symbol '%'.

Given that the price of the car with 25% price reduced is  £14625.

Now to find the price of the car before it was reduced,

for that we will find the price of car to 100 - 25 = 75 percentage.

Let P be the price of the car before it was reduced.

P × 75 / 100 = 14625

P = 14625 × 100 / 75

P = £19500

Therefore, the price of the car before it was reduced is £19500.

To learn more about the percentage;

https://brainly.com/question/24159063

#SPJ2

• 3 + k , 18 - k and 5k + 1 are in AP .

• The value of K .

• As we know that, In AP common difference is same :

• b - a = c - b

=> 2b = a + c

Here ,

• a = 3 + k

• b = 18 - k

• c = 5k + 1

=> 2 ( 18 - k ) = 3 + k + 5k + 1.

=> 36 - 2k = 4 + 6k

=> 36 - 4 = 6k + 2k

=> 32 = 8k

=> k = 32/8

=> k = 4

Hence , the value of k is 4.

Answer:

k=4

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the given terms are in A.P., the common difference will be the same

So, 18-k-3-k = 5k+1-18+k

15-2k = 6k-17

6k+2k = 17+15

8k = 32

k = 4

Answer:

The answer is C. $0.50 per day .

Hope this helps

Option C is correct, $0.50 per day is the unit rate for the cost of an overdue book at this library.

The unit rate is the cost per one unit of a given quantity.

In this case, it's the cost of an overdue book per day.

In the given graph models the late fee for overdue books, you can find the unit rate by identifying two points on the graph and calculating the slope between those points.

Suppose you have two points on the graph: (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂), where x represents the number of days the book is overdue, and y represents the corresponding late fee in dollars.

The formula for calculating the slope (m) between two points is:

m = (y₂ - y₁) / (x₂ - x₁)

Let us take two points from graph: (4, 2) and (6, 3)

Unit rate = 3-2/6-4

=1/2

=0.5

Hence, $0.50 is the unit rate for the cost of an overdue book at this library. Option C is correct.

To learn more on Unit rate click here:

https://brainly.com/question/29180656

#SPJ4

Answer:

4 + √15 > 3 + √6

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi there !

√15 ≈ 3.87

4 + 3.87 = 7.87

√6 ≈ 2.44

3 + 2.44 = 5.44

7.87 > 5.44

4 + √15 > 3 + √6

Good luck !

Answer:

393

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the best deal is 4 candy bars for $2.80

Step-by-step explanation:

4/5= 80 cents

2.8/4= 70 cents

7.2/10= 72 cents

1.5/2= 75 cents

the best deal is 4 candy bars for $2.80

Answer:

Domain is x and range is y

Answer:

m≤1

Step-by-step explanation:

Move the variable to the left,

m-5m≥-4

Collect like terms so you would have,

-4m≥-4

Then divide and switch the sign because you divided,

m≤1

Hi there & welcome to brainly !

Answer:

[tex] \huge{ \boxed{ \bold{ \tt{ \frac{3}{2}}}}} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

A ( 1 , 7 ) , B ( - 1 , 4 )

Slope = ?

Let A ( 1 , 7 ) ↦ ( x₁ , y₁ )

Let B ( - 1 , 4 ) ↦ ( x₂ , y₂ )

Finding the slope :

[tex] \boxed{ \tt{slope \: ( \: m)= \frac{y2 - y1}{x2 - x1} }}[/tex]

[tex] \sf{↦ \: slope = \frac{4 - 7}{ - 1 - 1}} [/tex]

[tex] \sf{↦ \: slope = \frac{ - 3}{ - 2}} [/tex]

[tex] \sf{↦ \: slope = \boxed{ \sf{ \frac{3}{2} }}}[/tex]

And we're done !

Hope I helped!

Best regards! :D

~TheAnimeGirl

Answer:

$5

Step-by-step explanation:

1=$5 so 2 hours = 10 SO 4hours ×$5= $20

Answer:

$5 per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps :D

cheers man

Answer:

The inverse function of f(x)=2.5*x+150 is f⁻¹(x)=[tex]\frac{2}{5}x-60[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

An inverse or reciprocal function of f (x) is called another function f ⁻¹(x) that fulfills that:

If f(a)=b then f⁻¹(b)=a

That is, inverse functions are functions that do the "opposite" of each other. For example, if the function f (x) converts a to b, then the inverse must convert b to a.

To construct or calculate the inverse function of any function, you must  follow the steps below:

Since f (x) or y is a function that depends on x, the variable x is solved as a function of the variable y. And since inverse functions swap the input and output values ​​(that is, if f (x) = y then f⁻¹(y) = x), then the variables are swapped and write the inverse as a function.

You know that he function f(x) = 2.5*x + 150 or y=2.5*x +150

Solving for x:

2.5*x +150=y

2.5*x= y-150

[tex]x=\frac{y-150}{2.5}[/tex]

[tex]x=\frac{y}{2.5}-\frac{150}{2.5}[/tex]

[tex]x=0.4y-60=\frac{2}{5}y-60[/tex]

Exchanging the variable, you obtain that the inverse function of f(x)=2.5*x+150 is f⁻¹(x)=[tex]\frac{2}{5}x-60[/tex]

Answer:

B) 5/8

Step-by-step explanation:

1.25/2

0.625

5/8

Answer:

Hey!

Your answer is $118.75!

Step-by-step explanation: How did I get this?

STEP 1: So we know that for a ton of rock costs us $47.50...

To get 2 tons all we have to do is to MULTIPLY $47.50 by 2...

(47.50 x 2 = 95)

STEP 2: So for $95, you will get 2 tons of rock!

Now to get the .5 tons of rock in price form, we have to get the price of the whole 2.5 tons and DIVIDE BY 2

(47.50 ÷ 2 = 23.75)

STEP 3: So now we have the costs for 2 tons and the price for HALF a ton.

What we do now is easy...we ADD THE VALUES TOGTHER!

(95 + 23.75 = $118.75)

The result of $118.75 after adding them together is the PRICE OF 2 TONS!

I HOPE THIS HELPED YOU!

Answer:

$118.75

Step-by-step explanation:

Okay, we know a rock per ton is $47.50.

What we need to know is how much 2.5 tons cost.

So if we take our 2.5 tons and we multiply it with our $47.50, this is what it will look like:

($47.50 * 2.5) = $118.75

So 2.5 tons of rock costs $118.75

Have a great day! :)

Answer:

If you want the real answer, its 19.

If you want the meme answer, its 21.

lol

the answer is 19 also don't waste points you might need it

Answer:

we should solve it or what should we do...

Answer: Subtract 3 from both sides of the equation

simplify

divide both sides on the equation by the same term

simplify

your answer should be 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

14 and 35 I believe.

Since the GCF of 14 and 35 is 7, the LCM is 70 (14×5 and 35×2), they both have 2 digits, and one is even (14) and the other is odd (35).

I hope this helped!

The mystery pair would be required for numbers 14 and 35.

The highest common factor is defined as the set of numbers with the highest common multiple. The highest positive integer with more than one factor in the set is HCF.

Prime Factorization is defined as any number that may be expressed as a product of prime numbers that has been said to be prime factorized. Any integer with exactly two factors 1 and the number itself. is said to be a prime number.

We need to write 70 as the product of its prime factors, which is 70.

⇒ 2 × 5 × 7

14 × 5 and 35 × 2

Given that the GCF of the mystery pair is 7

And the LCM of the mystery pair is 70.

Here the GCF of 14 and 35 would be 7

As per the given condition,

The required numbers in the pair have two digits,

Therefore, the even number is 14, and the odd is 35.

Hence, the mystery pair would be required for numbers 14 and 35.

Learn more about the highest common factor here:

https://brainly.in/question/3803222

#SPJ2