PLS HELP BEST AWNSER GETS BRAIN THINGY

Answer:

[tex]v = \frac{16}{3} \: \: and \: \: u = \frac{20}{3} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

In triangle WYZ ,

[tex] {u}^{2} = {4}^{2} + {v}^{2} = 16 + {v}^{2} [/tex]

In traingle WXZ ,

[tex] {(3 + v)}^{2} = {5}^{2} + {u}^{2} [/tex]

Putting the value of U^2 in above eqn.

[tex] = > {(3 + v)}^{2} = 25 + (16 + {v}^{2} )[/tex]

[tex] = > {v}^{2} + 6v + 9 = 41 + {v}^{2} [/tex]

[tex] = > {v}^{2} - {v}^{2} + 6v = 41 - 9[/tex]

[tex] = > 6v = 32[/tex]

[tex] = > v = \frac{32}{6} = \frac{16}{3} [/tex]

Putting the value of V in eqn. below :-

[tex] {u}^{2} = 16 + { (\frac{16}{3} )}^{2} [/tex]

[tex] = > {u}^{2} = \frac{256}{9} + 16[/tex]

[tex] = > {u}^{2} = \frac{256 + 144}{9} = \frac{400}{9} [/tex]

[tex] = > u = \sqrt{ \frac{400}{9} } = \frac{20}{3} [/tex]

Answer: x= 108

Step-by-step explanation: The triangle is an isosceles triangle, so the two sides are parallel which means the other angle equals to 72 as well. Now we take the triangle rule and do 180-72-72= 36 (the top angle= 36). The triangles are all equal so that means the other angle (in the upside down one) also equals 72 so we take 36+72= 108. Since it is also a parallelogram, the angles are equal.

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

did it on edge

Answer:

A. five units right and three units up.

Step-by-step explanation:

full answer = To form the image, the image moved

five units right and three units up.

Answer:

the answer would be 4, the number 2 would double since your dividing it by 0.5

Answer:

If this is looking at the line In the center then F.

Step-by-step explanation:

The line in the center is the Niscetor of the line segment AC

Answer:

$1.25

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1:

2.32 x 32

answer:

74.24

step 2:

114.24 - 74.24

answer:

40

step 3:

40 divided by 32

FINAL answer:

40 divided by 32 = x

x =

--------------

the original cost was $1.25! :D

Answer:

3 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

yes.

Answer:

Part 1:

Domain= {2,3,8,9}

Range = {7,9,14}

Part 2: Yes it is not a function

Step-by-step explanation:

Domain is the first number

Range is the second.

Domain= {2,3,8,9}

Range = {7,9,14} ( Notice that 14 is noted twice so just put it as once and this is not part of the answer)

Function: Is any of the domain numbers the same: Answer Yes it's a function.

Answer:

No, zack will finish first.

Step-by-step explanation:

I would rather not write it out but zack should finish first

Answer:

114°

Step-by-step explanation:

because they are parallel they have the same measure

The measure of angle 3 is equal to 114° when angle 7 is 114° by the corresponding angle property.

The angle is defined as the span between two intersecting lines or surfaces at or close to the point where they meet.

According to the definition of corresponding angles, when two parallel lines cross the third one, the angles that are in the same relative position at each intersection are referred to as being corresponding angles to one another.

In the image, it is given that angle 7 is 114 degrees. As in the image, the two parallel lines a and b are cut by the transversal line. The given angle 7 is 114°.

From the correspondence angle property, the two angles on the same side of the transversal line will be equal to each other. The angle 3 will be calculated as:-

∠7 = ∠3

114 =  ∠3

Therefore, angle 3 will be 114°.

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Answer:

y=7

Step-by-step explanation:

Since they are all congruent angles this means that the sides are equal too.

Answer:

Well, 1000>(15x+t)+(50x+100t) if there are children aboard.

B. The maximum amount is 19 if one adult is going with 18 children (not including the meal plan). And the total would be $1000

C. If only adults are going then a total of 8 adults can go if they are planning to use the raffle ticket for the meal plan too. If not then the total is 10.

I hope this is right.

The system of inequalities to model this scenario will be -

x + y ≤ 8

75y + 63x ≤ 200

The common region in the first quadrant gives the possible pair of peoples who can go to the trip.

Given is that the Rao family won a raffle of $1,000 to spend at Dixie Amusement Park. They want to use it for a group tour and for meals. A tour can have at most 8 people in the group, and if there are children on the tour there must be at least one adult. The tour cost $250 plus $100 for each adult and $50 for each child. The meal plan for the park is $15 per person.

Assume that there are [x] children in the group and [y] adults. So, we can write -

x + y ≤ 8    ... Eq[1]

(250 + 100)y + (250 + 50)x + 15(x + y) ≤ 1000

350y + 300x + 15x + 15y ≤ 1000

375y + 315x ≤ 1000

5(75y + 63x) ≤ 1000

75y + 63x ≤ 200      ... Eq[2]

Refer tot the graph attached. The common region in the first quadrant gives the possible pair of peoples who can go to the trip.

Therefore, the system of inequalities to model this scenario will be -

x + y ≤ 8

75y + 63x ≤ 200

The common region in the first quadrant gives the possible pair of peoples who can go to the trip.

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Answer:

$125,000

Step-by-step explanation:

the cost of the home = (10,000/8)*100 = $125,000

Answer:

125,000

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/216 is the answer hope it's right

Answer:

Channel 9 conducting this interview would be an example of a convenience sample.

Step-by-step explanation:

Convenience sampling is a kind of non-probability sampling (i.e. all items does not have an equivalent chance of being selected), which does not comprises of random collection of items.

Convenience sampling is where we take in items which are easy to reach.

For instance, gathering information on customer satisfaction by interviewing 6 randomly selected customers from a local store is an illustration of convenience sampling.

In this case Channel 9 selected a very easily available sample. Since, the elderly viewers are usually retired and can be reached easily either at home or on the phone, the sampling method used is convenience sample.

Answer:

2,160 Hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok so usual i would split $540 in half so a number multiplied by two would end up as 540, and i got 270. So since each week we know Phillip earned $270 and $11.25 a hour, we can divide 270 by 11.25, which gives us $24, so that means h = 24, but on week 2 it says Phillip worked 8 hours more on week 2, so that gives us a equation of 8 x 11.25, which comes out to 90, so now we can move on to our final equation, 90 x 24, which equals 2160. Im so sorry if this is wrong

Phillip worked for 20 hours and 28 hours in 1 and 2 weeks respectively.

A unit rate means a rate for one of something. We write this as a ratio with a denominator of one. For example, if you ran 70 yards in 10 seconds, you ran on average 7 yards in 1 second. Both of the ratios, 70 yards in 10 seconds and 7 yards in 1 second, are rates, but the 7 yards in 1 second is a unit rate.

Given that, Phillip earns $11.25 per hour. During Week 1, he worked h hours. During Week 2, he worked 8 hours more than Week 1. Phillip earned $540 for both weeks,

The unit rate for the work of Phillip is given, $11.25 per hour.

Therefore, his earning for h hours = $11.25h

For (8+h) hours = $11.25(h+8)

Since, he earned $540 for both weeks,

Therefore,

11.25(h+8) + 11.25h = 540

11.25h + 90 + 11.25h = 540

22.5h = 450

h = 20

h+8 = 28

Hence, Phillip worked for 20 hours and 28 hours in 1 and 2 weeks respectively.

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1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of rolling an even number on one roll is 3/6 = 1/2. Assuming the rolls are independent, the probability of rolling an even number 3 times is ...

 (1/2)(1/2)(1/2) = 1/8

The probability that Nancy rolls all even numbers in 3 rolls is 1/8

Answer:

0.125

Step-by-step explanation:

fastbridge

Answer:

6 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Observations = 6,8,3,6,3,7,4,6,7,3,6

From the above given data,

The observation 6 occurs 4 times, observation 3 occurs 3 times,observation 7 occurs 2 times and the observation 8 occur 1 time.

Mode:The most frequently occurring value.

So the mode of the data is 6 as it occurs more frequently than other.

Answer: (-1,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation: Lines up nicely with points A & D.

Answer:

2 = 1 + 1

3 = 2 + 1

5 = 3 + 2

8 = 5 + 3

13 = 8 + 5

21 = 13 + 8.

Fibonacci numbers are found in many structures in nature.

We have just found that these cacti enclose Fibonacci numbers 13 and 21.

13 and 21

Step-by-step explanation:

Final Answer: [tex]x = 12[/tex]

Steps/Reasons/Explanation:

Question: The equation, [tex]6x + 12 = 8x - 12[/tex] has one solution. Solve the equation and show and describe all the steps to show that the solution is of the form [tex]x = a[/tex].​

Step 1: Subtract [tex]6x[/tex] from both sides.

[tex]12 = 8x - 12 - 6x[/tex]

Step 2: Simplify [tex]8x - 12 - 6x[/tex] to [tex]2x - 12[/tex]

[tex]12 = 2x - 12[/tex]

Step 3: Add [tex]12[/tex] to both sides.

[tex]12 + 12 = 2x[/tex]

Step 4: Simplify [tex]12 + 12[/tex] to 24.

[tex]24 = 2x[/tex]

Step 5: Divide both sides by [tex]2[/tex].

[tex]\frac{24}{2} = x[/tex]

Step 6: Simplify [tex]\frac{24}{2}[/tex] to [tex]12[/tex].

[tex]12 = x[/tex]

Step 7: Switch sides.

[tex]x = 12[/tex]

~I hope I helped you :)~

Answer:

The ordered pairs that are solution to this equation are:

(8,1) and (10,3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given statement is:

"difference of two variables x and y is 7"

This can be mathematically written as:

[tex]x-y = 7[/tex]

To solve this we have to put y = 1 and y = 3

Now,

Putting y = 1 in the equation

[tex]x-1 = 7\\x = 8[/tex]

Putting y = 3 in the equation

[tex]x-3 = 7\\x = 7+3\\x = 10[/tex]

Ordered pairs are of the form (x,y)

Hence,

The ordered pairs that are solution to this equation are:

(8,1) and (10,3)

Answer:

48 in^2

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the area of a triangle is (1/2)*base*height, so (1/2)*4in*24in = 2in*24in = 48 in^2.

Answer:

48 in2

Step-by-step explanation:

when finding area we use the equation A= 1/2bh

b meaning base and h meaning height

so for this we would use A= 1/2(24)(4)

multiply them both to get A=1/2(96)

and then take half of 96 to get 48

so the answer is 48in 2

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]ab = ob - oa \\ ab = \binom{0}{ - 1} - \binom{3}{ - 2} \\ ab = \binom{ - 3}{ - 1} [/tex]

Answer:

20

50+35=80

180-80= 100

100-80=20

Answer:

80%

Step-by-step explanation:

% is out of 100 so make the denominator of 4/5 to be 100:

4/5 times 20/20 = 80/100 = 80%

Answer:

80%

Step-by-step explanation:

4 divided by 5 equal .8

.8 x 100 equals 80

It's multiplied by 100 because usually percentages are out of 100.

OR

You can move the decimal in .8 to 2 space to the right