Simple interest ending balance $41,900 at 4% for 2 years?

Answer:

possible arrangements

CCNNN

CNCNN

CNNCN

CNNNC

NCCNN

NCNCN

NCNNC

NNCCN

NNCNC

NNNCC

Ten ways to arrange the window

for any one of these there are

NHL

7 ways to fill the first position

6 ways to fill the second

5 ways to fill the third

7•6•5 = 210 ways to select the NHL jerseys

CFL

8 ways to fill the first position

7 ways to fill the second

8•7 = 56 ways to select the CFL jerseys

210•56 = 11760 ways to select a set of 5 jerseys

11760•10 = 117 600 possible ways to arrange the window

Answer:

alr yeah i get it now

Step-by-step explanation:

its A 11/14

Answer:

[tex]\frac{11}{14}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{2}{7}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{7}{14}[/tex]

Before adding er require the fractions to have the same denominators.

Multiply the numerator/ denominator of the first fraction by 2

= [tex]\frac{2(2)}{7(2)}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{7}{14}[/tex]

=[tex]\frac{4}{14}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{7}{14}[/tex]  ( now add numerators leaving the common denominator )

= [tex]\frac{4+7}{14}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{11}{14}[/tex]

Approximately 65% of the distribution lies within one standard deviation of the mean, which is to say,

P(72 ≤ x ≤ 86) ≈ 0.65

Normal distributions are symmetric, so the percentage of values one standard deviation below the mean is equal to the percentage of values one standard deviation above the mean.

P(72 ≤ x ≤ 79) = P(79 ≤ x ≤ 86)

but since the sum of these make up P(72 ≤ x ≤ 86), we find

P(72 ≤ x ≤ 79) ≈ 0.65/2 = 0.325

Also due to symmetry, exactly half of the distribution lies to either side of the mean; namely,

P(x ≥ 79) = 0.5

It follows that

P(x ≥ 72) = P(72 ≤ x ≤ 79) + P(79 ≤ x)

P(x ≥ 72) = 0.325 + 0.5

P(x ≥ 72) = 0.825 ≈ 0.84

Answer: 0.84

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x > 5

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply the fractions, break up the fraction, group like terms, convert integer into a fraction, combine the fraction, combine the numerator, etc. hope this helps.

Answer:

10^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10³

Step-by-step explanation:

10 × 10 × 10 = 10³

Answer:

10.

Step-by-step explanation:

X is often associated with the value of "independent variable"

y=20-2(5)

y=20-10

y=10

Hey there!

• If it CHANGES it means your temperature/time changes a bit overtime

• If it CONSTANT your temperature/time remains the same

So, basically to this question it was INCREASED then it was DECREASED

Therefore, your answer is: “Option A. “

Because it didn’t stay same

Good luck on your assignment and enjoy your day!

~Amphitrite1040:)

Answer : =

Step - by - step explanation :

6 3/6 -- simplest form --> 6 1/2

6 6/12 -- simplest form --> 6 1/2

Answer:

i think 179

Step-by-step explanation:

(3×2)+(2-1) = 7

(5×4)+(4-1) = 23

(7×6)+(6-1) = 47

(9×8)+(8-1) = 79

so 19----9 = (19×9)+(9-1) = 171+8 = 179

Answer:

$15,589

Step-by-step explanation:

Since it deteriorated 15%, it is now worth 85% of the original.

18340 * .85 = 15589

Answer:

5 tacos for 2 guests would mean more for each person, while 2 tacos for 5 guests would mean less for each person

Answer:0

Step-by-step explanation:

hey i'm in the six grade i'm not sure but pls try it

Answer:

x=85 degrees, y=45 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

solve for x first:

because there is a straight line (meaning that the angle is 180 degrees), the sum of x and 95 must be 180.

x+95=180 so solving for x would result in x=85 degrees (180-95)

then to solve for y:

the total sum of the interior angles of a triangle is 180 degrees.

so if you know x and the given 50, then to solve for y:

50+85(angle x)+y=180

then solve for y to get 45 degrees (180-(50+85))

Answer:

c. copy an angle.

there's no angle in this as far as I can see.

Answer:

a.0.311

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the function concept, it is found that the correct option is:

In this graph, for each value of x, there is only one value of y, hence it passes the vertical line test, and option C is correct.

You can learn more about the function concept at https://brainly.com/question/12463448

Answer:

4 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

6*(1/6) = 1 hour

6*(2/3) = 4 miles

Answer:

4 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

You are finding the rate. The formula for this equation is Rate=Distance/Time.

Your distance is 2/3, and your time is 1/6.

You divide 2/3 by 1/6 to get your answer of 4

Based on the information given, the student should score at least 77 in the last exam.

Since the student wants to get an average of at least 80. Therefore, the total scores should be:

= 80 × 3 = 240

The student received scores of 85 and 78 on the first two exams. The addition of this will be:

= 85 + 78 = 163

Therefore, his score in the last exam should be:

= 240 - 163

= 77

Learn more about equations on:

https://brainly.com/question/25678139

Answer:

100⁰

Step-by-step explanation:

Let,

First angle = x

Second angle = x + 40

Third angle = 5x

=> x + x + 40 + 5x = 180

=> 7x + 40 = 180

=> 7x = 180 - 40

=> 7x = 140

=> x = 140/7

=> x = 20

Largest angle = 5x = 5(20) = 100⁰

[tex]\huge{\purple{\underline{\underline{\bf{\pink{ANSWER:-}}}}}}[/tex]

[tex]:\implies\bf{x + x + 40 + 5x = 180} \\ \\ :\implies\bf{7x + 40 = 180} \\ \\ :\implies\bf{7x = 180 - 40} \\ \\ :\implies\bf{7x = 140} \\ \\ :\implies\bf{x = \frac{140}{7} } \\ \\ :\implies\bf{x = 20}[/tex]

The largest angle above is 5x thus,

[tex]:\implies\bf{5x} \\ \\ :\implies\bf{5 \times 20} \\ \\ :\implies\bf{100^°}[/tex]

Answer:

GM = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

HJK is congruent to HKL (RHS congruency)

so, JK = KL

JK = 2

GHJ is congruent to MHL (SAS congruency)

so, GJ = LM

LM = 7

GM = 7 + 2 + 2 + 7 = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

the general line equation format is

y = ax + b

a is the slope or gradient of the line. it is the ratio of "y coordinate change / x coordinate change".

b is the y-intercept, the y value when x = 0. we get this by putting one point into the equation and solve for b.

(i)

A (3, 5)

B (5, 9)

x changes by +2 (from 3 to 5).

y changes by +4 (from 5 to 9).

so, the slope (or gradient) is +4/+2 = 2

(ii)

the semi-finished equation is

y = 2x + b

let's use A to get b :

5 = 2×3 + b = 6 + b

b = -1

and the full equation is

y = 2x - 1

(iii)

for point (4, k) we get

k = 2×4 - 1 = 8 - 1 = 7

The graph should show an increase of $ 0.80 for every minute that the call lasts.

A 5 minute phone call costs $ 4, with which, to determine the information that the graph should show, the following calculation must be performed:

Therefore, the graph should show an increase of $ 0.80 for every minute that the call lasts.

Learn more about maths in https://brainly.com/question/25834039

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Base = 10 ft. and the height = 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of triangle = 1/2bh

base is 4 + h  ⇔  base = 4 + h

height = h

Using the formula for the area of triangle substitute into the formula the given facts.

A = 1/2bh

30 = 1/2(4 + h) (h)

30 = 1/2(4h + h²)     Multiply both sides by 2

60 = 4h + h²

-60 =           -60      Add -60 to both sides

0 = h²+ 4h -60        

(h + 10)(h - 6) = 0      Factor

h + 10 = 0    h - 6 =0

h = -10         h = 6

reject any negative number and use the positive answer for h.

So h = 6      and the base = 4 + 6 ; base = 10

Answer:

6/6 or 1

Step-by-step explanation:

bow tie method

Answer:

vertical angles are supplementary

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Angles 1 and 4 are vertical angles.

According to definition of vertical angles, they are congruent.

Correct choice is C

Answer:

x = 32

Step-by-step explanation:

this is an equilateral triangle where all sides measure the same value; therefore, 2x-4 = 5y

since we are solving for 'x' we can set up this equation:

3(2x-4) = 180

6x - 12 = 180

6x = 192

x = 32

Answer:

d)

Step-by-step explanation:

we know, that i = sqrt(-1)

so, i² = -1

i³ = -i

i⁴ = -i × i = - -1 = 1

i⁵ = i⁴×I = 1×i = i

and the cycle begins again for any higher exponents.

so, we find out what i^n is, by dividing n by 4 and look at the remainder.

remainder = 0, i^n = 1

remainder = 1, i^n = i

remainder = 2, i^n = -1

remainder = 3, i^n = -i

so, what is 139 in this regard ?

139 ÷ 4 = 34

remainder 3

so, i¹³⁹ = -i

a) 322 ÷ 4 = 80

remainder 2. not equivalent.

b) 304 ÷ 4 = 76

remainder 0. not equivalent.

c) 221 ÷ 4 = 55

remainder 1. not equivalent.

d) 239 ÷ 4 = 59

remainder 3. this IS equivalent.

Answer:

scale factor = [tex]\frac{14}{5}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale factor is the ratio of corresponding sides, image to original.

scale factor = [tex]\frac{7}{2.5}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{7(2)}{2.5(2)}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{14}{5}[/tex]

Answer:

19

Step-by-step explanation:

In the first number, they add three and that number is repeated.

To further explain, the series would continue like this:

7, 10, 10, 13, 16, 16, 19, 22, 22...

Hope this helps! Brainliest would be appreciated!

Answer:

yes because they're both half of each other

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation: