The capacitors are connected in parallel. We have C1 = 120µF, C2 = 30µF, R = 50Ω, and E = 40V. The capacitors are
initially uncharged and at t = 0 the switch is closed, allowing current to flow.
a) What is the time constant of the system?
b) How is the voltage of C1 related to the voltage of C2?
c) How is the charge stored by C1 related to the charge stored by C2? How is the current through C1 related to the
current through C2? What fraction of the current through the battery flows through C1? What fraction flows through
C2?
d) What is the voltage of C1 and the voltage of C2 as t → [infinity]?
e) What is the energy stored by each capacitor as t → [infinity]? What is the total energy supplied by the battery and the total
energy dissipated by the resistor as t → [infinity]?

Answers

Answer 1

a) The time constant is 7.5 ms.

b) The voltage of C₁ is equal to the voltage of C₂.

c) The charge stored by C₁ is equal to the charge stored by C₂, and the current through C₁ is equal to the current through C₂. Half of the current flows through C₁, and half flows through C₂.

d) The voltage of C₁ and C₂ both approach 40V as t → [infinity].

e) The energy stored by each capacitor approaches 48 mJ as t → [infinity]. The total energy supplied by the battery is 1.92 J or 192 mJ, and the total energy dissipated by the resistor is 1.92 J or 192 mJ as t → [infinity].

a) The time constant of the system can be calculated using the formula τ = RC, where R is the resistance of the resistor and C is the equivalent capacitance of the capacitors in parallel.

C_eq = C₁ + C₂

C_eq  = 150 µF

τ = (50 Ω) × (150 µF)

τ = 7.5 ms

b) Since the capacitors are connected in parallel, they have the same voltage across them. Thus, V(C₁) = V(C₂).

c) Since the capacitors are connected in parallel, they have the same voltage across them, and the charge stored by each capacitor is proportional to its capacitance.

Thus, Q(C₁) = C₁ × V(C₁) and

Q(C₂) = C₂ × V(C₂).

Similarly, the current through each capacitor is proportional to its capacitance,

so I(C₁) = C₁ × dV/dt and

I(C₂) = C₂ × dV/dt.

The current through the resistor is equal to the total current supplied by the battery, which is also equal to the current through the capacitors. Thus,

I(R) = I(C₁) + I(C₂).

Since the capacitors have different capacitances, the current through them is different, but they add up to the total current supplied by the battery.

The fraction of the current flowing through C₁ is given by

I(C₁) / I(R) = C₁ / C_eq

I(C₁) / I(R) = 0.8 or 80%,

and the fraction flowing through C₂ is given by

I(C₂) / I(R) = C₂ / C_eq

I(C₂) / I(R) = 0.2 or 20%.

d) As t → ∞, the capacitors become fully charged and no current flows through them. Thus, the voltage across each capacitor approaches the voltage of the battery, which is 40V.

Hence, V(C₁) → 40V and V(C₂) → 40V.

e) As t → ∞, the energy stored by each capacitor can be calculated using the formula

E = (1/2) × C × V²,

where E is the energy, C is the capacitance, and V is the voltage across the capacitor.

Thus, E(C₁) = (1/2) × (120 µF) ×(40V)²

E(C₁) = 96 mJ and

E(C₂) = (1/2) × (30 µF) × (40V)²

E(C₂) = 96 mJ.

The total energy supplied by the battery is given by

E_total = E(C₁) + E(C₂) = 192 mJ.

The energy dissipated by the resistor can be calculated using the formula

P = V² / R,

where P is the power and V is the voltage across the resistor.

Thus, P = (40V)² / 50 Ω

= 32 mW.

As t → ∞, the energy dissipated by the resistor is equal to the total energy supplied by the battery, since no energy is stored in the capacitors.

Thus, E_resistor = E_total = 192 mJ.

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Related Questions

at what altitude above earth's surface would the gravitational acceleration be 3.30 m/s2? (take the earth's radius as 6370 km.)

Answers

The gravitational acceleration of 3.30 m/s² is achieved at an altitude approximately 2,201,636 meters below the Earth's surface.

To determine the altitude above Earth's surface where the gravitational acceleration would be 3.30 m/s², we can use the formula for gravitational acceleration and take into account the radius of the Earth.

The formula for gravitational acceleration is:

g = G * (M / r²)

Where:

g is the gravitational acceleration,

G is the gravitational constant (approximately 6.67430 × 10⁻¹¹ m³/(kg·s²)),

M is the mass of the Earth, and

r is the distance between the object and the center of the Earth.

Given that the radius of the Earth (r) is 6370 km, we need to convert it to meters by multiplying by 1000:

r = 6370 km * 1000 = 6,370,000 meters

We can rearrange the formula to solve for r:

r = sqrt(G * M / g)

Now, let's substitute the known values into the formula:

r = sqrt((6.67430 × 10⁻¹¹ m³/(kg·s²)) * (5.972 × 10²⁴ kg) / (3.30 m/s²))

Calculating this equation gives us:

r ≈ 4,168,364 meters

Therefore, the altitude above Earth's surface where the gravitational acceleration would be 3.30 m/s² is approximately 4,168,364 meters or 4,168 kilometers.

To find the actual altitude from the Earth's surface, we subtract the Earth's radius from the calculated distance:

Altitude = r - Earth's radius

Altitude = 4,168,364 m - 6,370,000 m

Altitude ≈ -2,201,636 meters

The negative value indicates that the altitude is below the Earth's surface. In this case, it means that the gravitational acceleration of 3.30 m/s² is achieved at an altitude approximately 2,201,636 meters below the Earth's surface.

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a) What is the relationship between the energy of the incident photon, the work function and the ejection of electrons?
b) What is the relationship between the kinetic energy of ejected electrons, energy of the incident photon, and the work function?
c) When increasing the incident of light slightly above, and well above, the threshold frequency, what are some changes in the number of ejected electrons?

Answers

a) The relationship between the energy of the incident photon, the work function, and the ejection of electrons is that the energy of the photon must be greater than the work function in order to eject electrons.

b) The relationship between the kinetic energy of ejected electrons, energy of the incident photon, and the work function is that the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons is directly proportional to the energy of the incident photon and inversely proportional to the work function.

c) When increasing the incident light slightly above, and well above, the threshold frequency, the number of ejected electrons increases due to the higher energy of the photons.

a) The energy of the incident photon is directly related to the work function. If the energy of the photon is greater than the work function, then electrons will be ejected from the material. This is known as the photoelectric effect. The energy of the photon must be greater than the work function in order to overcome the attractive force of the material and eject the electrons.

b) The kinetic energy of the ejected electrons is directly proportional to the energy of the incident photon and inversely proportional to the work function. This means that if the energy of the incident photon is increased, then the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons will also increase. Similarly, if the work function is decreased, then the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons will increase.

c) When the incident light is slightly above the threshold frequency, only a small number of electrons will be ejected from the material. However, as the frequency of the incident light is increased well above the threshold frequency, more and more electrons will be ejected. This is because the energy of the photons is greater, and more electrons can be ejected from the material.

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The energy of an incident photon is directly related to the work function and the ejection of electrons. The work function is the minimum energy required for an electron to escape from a material.

When an incident photon has enough energy to meet or exceed the work function, an electron can be ejected from the material. The energy of the incident photon determines the kinetic energy of the ejected electron. If the energy of the incident photon is greater than the work function, the remaining energy is transferred to the ejected electron as kinetic energy. The kinetic energy of ejected electrons is directly related to the energy of the incident photon and the work function. If the energy of the incident photon is greater than the work function, the kinetic energy of the ejected electron will be equal to the energy of the incident photon minus the work function.

When increasing the incident light slightly above the threshold frequency, the number of ejected electrons will increase slightly. However, increasing the incident light well above the threshold frequency will cause a significant increase in the number of ejected electrons. This is because the energy of the incident photons is greater and can overcome the work function of more electrons, resulting in more electrons being ejected. However, there is a limit to the number of electrons that can be ejected, as there are a finite number of electrons in a material.

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a glass lens ( =1.60 ) has a focal length of =−32.4 cm and a plano‑concave shape. calculate the magnitude of the radius of curvature of the concave surface.

Answers

The magnitude of the radius of curvature of the concave surface is 20.8 cm.

What is the magnitude of the radius of curvature of the concave surface?

A glass lens with a refractive index of 1.60 and a focal length of -32.4 cm is plano-concave in shape. To find the magnitude of the radius of curvature of the concave surface, we can use the lensmaker's formula:

1/f = (n - 1) * (1/R₁ - 1/R₂)

Where f is the focal length, n is the refractive index, R₁ is the radius of curvature of the convex surface, and R₂ is the radius of curvature of the concave surface.

Given that the focal length (f) is -32.4 cm and the refractive index (n) is 1.60, and assuming the convex surface is flat (R₁ = infinity), we can rearrange the formula and solve for R₂:

1/R₂ = (n - 1) / f1/R₂ = (1.60 - 1) / -32.41/R₂ = 0.60 / -32.4R₂= -32.4 / 0.60R₂≈ -54 cm

The magnitude of the radius of curvature is always positive, so taking the absolute value, we find that the magnitude of the radius of curvature of the concave surface is approximately 54 cm.

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a constant net force acting on an object that is free to move will produce a constant. true or false?

Answers

True. A constant net force acting on an object that is free to move will produce a constant acceleration. This is known as Newton's second law of motion, which states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass.

Therefore, the larger the net force, the greater the acceleration, and the smaller the mass, the greater the acceleration. However, if the net force is zero, the object will not accelerate and will continue to move at a constant velocity (if it was already in motion) or remain at rest (if it was initially at rest).

This is in accordance with Newton's Second Law of Motion, which states that the net force acting on an object is equal to the product of the object's mass and its acceleration (F = ma). If the net force remains constant, so will the acceleration.

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An overhead transmission cable for electrical power is 2000 m long and consists of two parallel copper wires, each encased in insulating material. A short circuit has developed somewhere along the length of the cable where the insulation has worn thin and the two wires are in contact. As a power-company employee, you must locate the short so that repair crews can be sent to that location. Both ends of the cable have been disconnected from the power grid. At one end of the cable (point A), you connect the ends of the two wires to a 9. 00-V battery that has negligible internal resistance and measure that 2. 26 A of current flows through the battery. At the other end of the cable (point B), you attach those two wires to the battery and measure that 2. 05 A of current flows through the battery.



Required:


How far is the short from point A?

Answers

The short in the overhead transmission cable is approximately 762.5 meters away from point A. To determine the distance of the short from point A, we can use the concept of resistance.

When the two wires are in contact, they effectively form a parallel circuit. The total resistance of the cable can be calculated using the formula:

[tex]\[\frac{1}{R_{\text{total}}} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2}\][/tex]

where [tex]\(R_{\text{total}}\)[/tex] is the total resistance, [tex]\(R_1\)[/tex] is the resistance from point A to the short, and [tex]\(R_2\)[/tex] is the resistance from the short to point B.

From Ohm's law, we know that the current I is equal to the voltage V divided by the resistance R. In this case, the current at point A is 2.26 A and the current at point B is 2.05 A. Since the battery has negligible internal resistance, the current at both ends of the cable is the same as the current flowing through the cable.

Using Ohm's law, we can write two equations:

[tex]\(2.26 = \frac{9}{R_1}\) and \(2.05 = \frac{9}{R_2}\)[/tex]

Solving these equations, we find that [tex]\(R_1 = 3.982\)[/tex] ohms and [tex]\(R_2 = 4.390\)[/tex] ohms.

Since the resistances are inversely proportional to the distances, we can write:

[tex]\(\frac{R_1}{R_2} = \frac{d_2}{d_1}\)[/tex]

Substituting the values, we have:

[tex]\(\frac{3.982}{4.390} = \frac{d_2}{d_1}\)[/tex]

Simplifying, we find:

[tex]\(d_2 = \frac{4.390}{3.982} \times d_1\)[/tex]

Given that the total length of the cable is 2000 meters, we can write:

[tex]\(d_1 + d_2 = 2000\)[/tex]

Substituting the value of [tex]\(d_2\)[/tex], we have:

[tex]\(d_1 + \frac{4.390}{3.982} \times d_1 = 2000\)[/tex]

Simplifying, we find:

[tex]\(d_1 = \frac{2000}{1 + \frac{4.390}{3.982}}\)[/tex]

Evaluating the expression, we find that [tex]\(d_1 \approx 762.5\)[/tex] meters.

Therefore, the short in the overhead transmission cable is approximately 762.5 meters away from point A.

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for a uniform object, we can assume that any torque due to the weight of the object acts as if all the mass of the object is concentrated at the object's center of mass (or center of gravity). T/F

Answers

True. For a uniform object, it is true that we can assume any torque due to the weight of the object acts as if all the mass of the object is concentrated at the object's center of mass (or center of gravity). This assumption is based on the principle of equilibrium and simplifies the analysis of rotational motion.

The center of mass of an object is the point where the entire mass of the object can be considered to be concentrated. In a uniform object, where the mass is evenly distributed, the center of mass coincides with the geometric center of the object. By considering the torque due to the weight acting at the center of mass, we can simplify the calculation of rotational equilibrium without needing to consider the distribution of mass throughout the object.

This assumption is valid as long as the object is uniform and the external forces acting on it do not cause significant deformation or redistribution of mass. In more complex cases, where the object is not uniform or there are external forces that affect its mass distribution, a more detailed analysis is required.

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What type of renewable resource does this power station use?

Answers

Renewable resources are sources of energy that can be replenished naturally or through sustainable practices. They include various forms of energy generation such as solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass.

Solar Power: Power stations that use solar energy capture sunlight through photovoltaic panels or solar thermal systems to convert it into electricity.

Wind Power: Wind turbines in wind power stations convert the kinetic energy of wind into electrical energy.

Hydroelectric Power: Power stations that harness the potential energy of flowing or falling water in rivers or dams to generate electricity.

Geothermal Power: Power stations that utilize the heat from the Earth's interior to produce steam, which drives turbines and generates electricity.

Biomass Power: Power stations that burn organic materials such as wood, agricultural residues, or dedicated energy crops to produce heat or electricity.

It's important to note that the specific type of renewable resource used by a power station depends on factors such as the available resources in the area, the technology employed, and the local conditions.

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A metal bar pushed along two neutral parallel rails. The distance between the rails is d, and the rails connect with a resistor with a resistance of R. The metal bar moved at a constant speed of v towards the resistor. The system is in the presence of a 4.0 T magnetic field directed out of the page. What is the current through the resistor if the rails and the bar have negligible resistance (6 points)? Assigned values for d = 0.2 m, R = 3.0 Ω, and v = 2 m/s.

Answers

The current through the resistor is 1.33 A.

To calculate the current through the resistor, we can use the equation I = V/R, where V is the voltage across the resistor. In this case, the voltage is induced by the magnetic field, and we can use the equation V = Blv, where B is the magnetic field strength, l is the length of the metal bar, and v is the velocity of the bar. The length of the metal bar is equal to the distance between the rails, so l = d. Plugging in the assigned values, we get V = 4.0 T * 0.2 m * 2 m/s = 1.6 V. Then, using Ohm's Law, we get I = V/R = 1.6 V / 3.0 Ω = 1.33 A. Therefore, the current through the resistor is 1.33 A.

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identify the correct name or abbreviation for the given nucleoside or nucleotide.

Answers

To provide accurate answers, please provide the specific nucleoside or nucleotide for which you would like to know the correct name or abbreviation.

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Describing a wave what causes a disturbance that results in a wave?

Answers

A wave is a disturbance that travels through a medium, transferring energy without permanently displacing the medium itself.

There are many different types of waves, including sound waves, light waves, water waves, and seismic waves.

The cause of a wave is typically a disturbance or vibration that is introduced to the medium. For example, when you drop a stone into a pond, it creates ripples that travel outward from the point of impact. The disturbance caused by the stone creates a wave that propagates through the water.

Similarly, in the case of a sound wave, the vibration of an object (such as a guitar string or a speaker cone) creates disturbances in the air molecules around it, which then propagate outward as sound waves. In the case of a light wave, the oscillation of electric and magnetic fields create disturbances that propagate through space.

In summary, any disturbance or vibration introduced to a medium can create a wave, which then travels outward and carries energy without permanently displacing the medium itself.

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how will the sun appear to a scuba diver looking upward through the water at the sun higher than it actually is lower than it actually is

Answers

When a scuba diver looks upward through the water at the Sun, the Sun will appear to be higher than it actually is. This phenomenon is known as apparent elevation or apparent height.

The reason for this is the refraction of light as it passes from one medium (air) to another medium (water) with a different optical density. Refraction occurs due to the change in speed of light as it enters a different medium, causing the light rays to bend.

In the case of the Sun, as its light passes from air into water, it undergoes refraction. The denser water causes the light to slow down, and as a result, the light rays bend or refract towards the normal (an imaginary line perpendicular to the surface of the water). This bending of light leads to the apparent elevation of the Sun when observed from underwater.

The amount of apparent elevation depends on the angle of incidence, the angle between the incident light ray and the normal. As the angle of incidence increases, the apparent elevation of the Sun also increases.

It's important to note that the actual position of the Sun in the sky remains the same, but due to the refraction of light, its apparent position appears higher than its true position when viewed from underwater.

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If gravitational forces alone prevent a spherical, rotating neutron star from disintegrating, estimate the minimum mean density of a star that has a rotation period of one millisecond.

Answers

The minimum mean density of a neutron star with a rotation period of one millisecond by gravitational forces alone, is approximately 1.91 x10¹⁷ kg/[tex]m^3[/tex].

How to find the density of  neutron star's?

The minimum mean density of a spherical , rotating neutron star that can be prevented from disintegrating by gravitational forces alone can be estimated using the formula for centrifugal force, which is balanced by the gravitational force.

Assuming the neutron star has a radius of R, the centrifugal force at the equator can be expressed as F_c = mRω², where m is the mass of a particle on the surface of the star and ω is the angular velocity of rotation. The gravitational force, on the other hand, is given by F_g = GmM/[tex]R^2[/tex], where M is the total mass of the neutron star and G is the gravitational constant.

For the neutron star to be prevented from disintegrating by gravitational forces alone, the centrifugal force must not exceed the gravitational force. Therefore, we have:

mRω² ≤ GmM/[tex]R^2[/tex]

Simplifying the equation, we get:

M/[tex]R^3[/tex] ≥ (ω²/G)

Assuming a rotation period of 1 millisecond, which corresponds to an angular velocity of ω = 2π/1ms = 2πx[tex]10^3[/tex] rad/s, and using the gravitational constant G = 6.6743 × 10⁻¹¹[tex]m^3[/tex]/kg s², we can calculate the minimum mean density of the neutron star to be:

M/[tex]R^3[/tex] ≥ (ω²/G) = 1.91 x 10¹⁷ kg/[tex]m^3[/tex]

This means that for a neutron star with a rotation period of one millisecond to be prevented from disintegrating by gravitational forces alone, it must have a minimum mean density of at least 1.91 x10¹⁷ kg/[tex]m^3[/tex]. This density is incredibly high, over 100 trillion times denser than water, which makes neutron stars some of the densest objects in the universe.

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This standing wave pattern was seen at a frequency of 800 hz. What is the frequency of the 2nd harmonic?

A) 800 hz
B) 200 hz
C) 1600 hz
D) 400 hz

Answers

This standing wave pattern was seen at a frequency of 800 hz. The frequency of the 2nd harmonic is C) 1600 hz.

A standing wave is shaped when a wave disrupts its reflected wave, causing productive and horrendous impedance designs. For this situation, the standing wave design was seen at a recurrence of 800 Hz. The subsequent consonant is the second recurrence that can be created by a framework at two times the crucial recurrence.

The second symphonious of a standing wave is twofold the recurrence of the central recurrence. In this manner, the recurrence of the subsequent consonant can be determined as 2 x 800 Hz = 1600 Hz.

In this way, the right response is choice C) 1600 Hz.

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An oil film (n = 1.45) floating on water is illuminated by white light at normal incidence. The film is 280 `nm thick. Find (a) the color of the light in the visible spectrum most strongly reflected and (b) the color of the light in the spectrum most strongly transmitted. Explain your reasoning.

Answers

The color most strongly transmitted will be the color of visible light with a wavelength closest to 1120 nm/4 (four times the thickness of the oil film), which is approximately 280 nm, a violet color.

When light reflects from a thin film of oil on water, the waves of light reflecting from the top and bottom of the film can interfere constructively or destructively depending on the thickness of the film and the wavelength of the light.

The wavelength of visible light ranges from approximately 400 nm to 700 nm. Thus, only a small range of colors of visible light will be strongly reflected or transmitted by the oil film.

(a) The color of the light most strongly reflected will be the color for which the thickness of the film produces constructive interference.

Using the equation for the thickness of a thin film, we can calculate that for constructive interference in the visible spectrum, the thickness of the film should be an odd multiple of one-quarter of the wavelength of the light.

Therefore, the color most strongly reflected will be the color of visible light with a wavelength closest to 1120 nm/3 (three times the thickness of the oil film), which is approximately 467 nm, a blue-green color.

(b) The color of the light most strongly transmitted will be the color for which the thickness of the film produces destructive interference.

Using the same equation, we can calculate that for destructive interference in the visible spectrum, the thickness of the film should be an even multiple of one-quarter of the wavelength of the light.

Therefore, the color most strongly transmitted will be the color of visible light with a wavelength closest to 1120 nm/4 (four times the thickness of the oil film), which is approximately 280 nm, a violet color.

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y1.how would the motion of a pendulum change at high altitude like a high mountain top? how would the motion change under weightless conditions? (make sure to use your own words.)

Answers

The motion of a pendulum at a high altitude, the period of the pendulum would increase, causing the swing to slow down.

The motion of a pendulum changes under weightless conditions would change drastically.

The motion of a pendulum at a high altitude, such as on a mountaintop, would change due to a decrease in gravitational force. The period of the pendulum, which is the time it takes for one complete swing, depends on the length of the pendulum and the force of gravity. Therefore, at high altitudes, the pendulum's period would increase, causing the swing to slow down.

Under weightless conditions, such as in space, the motion of a pendulum would change drastically. Without the force of gravity, the pendulum would not swing at all but rather float in a stationary position. The pendulum's weight and length would no longer affect its motion, and other forces such as air resistance or electromagnetic fields may play a role in its movement.

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what is the thermal energy of a 1.0m×1.0m×1.0m box of helium at a pressure of 5 atm ?

Answers

The thermal energy of a 1.0m x 1.0m x 1.0m box of helium at a pressure of 5 atm and room temperature is approximately 936 joules.

To calculate the thermal energy of a 1.0m x 1.0m x 1.0m box of helium at a pressure of 5 atm, we need to use the ideal gas law, which relates the pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas:

PV = nRT

where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of gas, R is the universal gas constant, and T is the temperature in kelvin.

To solve for the thermal energy, we first need to calculate the number of moles of helium in the box. We can use the ideal gas law to solve for this quantity:

n = PV/RT

where R is equal to 8.31 J/(mol*K), the universal gas constant.

We can then use the number of moles and the temperature to calculate the thermal energy of the system:

E = (3/2)nRT

where E is the thermal energy in joules.

Assuming that the box is at room temperature of 25°C or 298K, we can calculate the number of moles of helium using the ideal gas law:

n = [tex]$\frac{(5 \, \text{atm} * 1.0)}{(8.31 \, \frac{\text{J}}{\text{mol*K}} * 298 \, \text{K})} = 0.816 \, \text{mol}$[/tex]

Using this value of n, we can calculate the thermal energy of the system:

E = [tex]$(\frac{3}{2}) * 0.816 \, \text{mol} * 8.31 \, \frac{\text{J}}{\text{mol*K}} * 298 \, \text{K}$[/tex] = 936 J

Therefore, the thermal energy of a 1.0m x 1.0m x 1.0m box of helium at a pressure of 5 atm and room temperature is approximately 936 joules.

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the heat capacity of water is 1 cal/ (g °c). what heat is required to raise the temperature of 50 g of water by 20° c? answer in calories

Answers

It requires 1000 calories of heat to raise the temperature of 50 grams of water by 20°C.

To calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of 50 g of water by 20°C, we need to use the formula:

Q = m × c × ΔT

Where Q is the amount of heat required, m is the mass of the water, c is the specific heat capacity of water, and ΔT is the change in temperature.

Substituting the given values, we get:

Q = 50 g × 1 cal/(g°C) × 20°C

Q = 1000 cal

Therefore, it requires 1000 calories of heat to raise the temperature of 50 grams of water by 20°C.

The specific heat capacity of water is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C. It is a unique property of water, and it is used in a variety of scientific calculations.  Water has a high specific heat capacity, which means that it can absorb a large amount of heat energy without a significant rise in temperature.


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Tennis ball of mass m= 0.060 kg and speed v = 25 m/s strikes a wall at a 45 degree angle and rebounds with the same speed at 45 degree. what is the impulse ( magnitude and direction) given to the ball?

Answers

The impulse given to the ball has a magnitude of 3 kg*m/s, and a direction of 180 degrees.

The impulse given to an object is equal to the change in momentum of the object. Therefore, we can find the impulse given to the tennis ball by calculating its initial momentum and final momentum, and then finding the difference.

The initial momentum of the ball is:

p1 = m * v = 0.060 kg * 25 m/s = 1.5 kg*m/s

Since the ball rebounds with the same speed and angle, the final momentum of the ball is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the initial momentum.

Therefore, the final momentum is:

p2 = -m * v = -0.060 kg * 25 m/s = -1.5 kg*m/s

The change in momentum, and thus the impulse given to the ball, is:

Δp = p2 - p1 = (-1.5 kg*m/s) - (1.5 kg*m/s) = -3 kg*m/s

The impulse is in the opposite direction to the initial momentum, since the ball rebounds in the opposite direction. Therefore, the direction of the impulse is 180 degrees, or opposite to the direction of the initial momentum.

So the impulse given to the ball has a magnitude of 3 kg*m/s, and a direction of 180 degrees.

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A grindstone increases in angular speed from 4.00 rad/s to to12.00 rad/s in 4.00 s. Through what andle does it turn duringthat time if the angular acceleration is constant?a) 8.00 radb) 12.0 radc) 16.00 radd) 32.0 rade) 64 rad

Answers

The grindstone turns through an angle of 32.00 rad (Option d) during the given time with constant angular acceleration.

The grindstone's angular acceleration is constant, and we know that it increases from 4.00 rad/s to 12.00 rad/s in 4.00 s. We can use the formula:
angular speed = initial angular speed + (angular acceleration x time)
We can rearrange this formula to solve for angular acceleration:
angular acceleration = (angular speed - initial angular speed) / time
Plugging in the values, we get:
angular acceleration = (12.00 rad/s - 4.00 rad/s) / 4.00 s = 2.00 rad/s^2
Now, we can use another formula to find the angle turned:
angle turned = initial angular speed x time + (1/2 x angular acceleration x time^2)
Plugging in the values, we get:
angle turned = 4.00 rad/s x 4.00 s + (1/2 x 2.00 rad/s^2 x (4.00 s)^2) = 32.00 rad
Therefore, the answer is 32.00 rad (Option d).

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A heat engine has an efficiency of 35.0% and receives 150 J of heat per cycle.
(a) How much work does it perform in each cycle?

Answers

If a heat engine has an efficiency of 35.0% and receives 150 J of heat per cycle. The heat engine performs 52.5 J of work in each cycle.

To find the amount of work performed by the heat engine in each cycle, we can use the formula for efficiency:

efficiency = (work output/heat input) x 100%

Given that the efficiency of the heat engine is 35.0% and it receives 150 J of heat per cycle, we can rearrange the formula to solve for the work output:

work output = efficiency x heat input / 100%

Substituting the given values, we get:

work output = 35.0% x 150 J / 100%
work output = 52.5 J

Therefore, the heat engine performs 52.5 J of work in each cycle.

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Light of wavelength 500 nm is used in a two slit interference experiment, and a fringe pattern is observed on a screen. When light of wavelength 650 nm is used
a) the position of the second bright fringe is larger
b) the position of the second bright fringe is smaller
c) the position of the second bright fringe does not change

Answers

The position of the second bright fringe in a two slit interference experiment does not change when light of wavelength 650 nm is used.


In a two slit interference experiment, the interference pattern depends on the wavelength of the light used. The fringe pattern is formed due to constructive and destructive interference between the waves from the two slits. The position of the bright fringes is determined by the path difference between the waves from the two slits, which is given by the equation d sinθ = mλ, where d is the slit separation, θ is the angle of diffraction, m is the order of the bright fringe, and λ is the wavelength of the light.

Since the slit separation and the angle of diffraction are fixed in the experiment, the position of the bright fringes depends only on the wavelength of the light. For light of wavelength 500 nm, the position of the second bright fringe is determined by d sinθ = 2λ, while for light of wavelength 650 nm, the position of the second bright fringe is determined by d sinθ = 2(650 nm).

As the slit separation and the angle of diffraction are the same for both wavelengths, the path difference between the waves from the two slits is also the same. Therefore, the position of the second bright fringe does not change when light of wavelength 650 nm is used.


In a two slit interference experiment, the position of the second bright fringe does not change when light of wavelength 650 nm is used. The interference pattern depends on the wavelength of the light used, and the position of the bright fringes is determined by the path difference between the waves from the two slits, which is given by the equation d sinθ = mλ.

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true/false. the energy of a single photon is given by e = nnahv.

Answers

The given statement "the energy of a single photon is given by e = nnahv" is False because the correct equation for the energy of a photon is E = hf.

The energy of a single photon is given by the equation E = hf, where E represents the energy of the photon, h is Planck's constant (approximately 6.63 x[tex]10^{-34}[/tex] Js), and f is the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation. The term nnahv is not relevant to this equation.

As the frequency of electromagnetic radiation increases, so does the energy of the associated photons. This relationship is crucial in understanding the behavior of electromagnetic radiation, such as light, and how it interacts with matter.

Photons are the elementary particles of electromagnetic radiation and have both wave-like and particle-like properties. The energy of a photon can be transferred to atoms or molecules, causing them to gain or lose energy, which is the basis for various phenomena such as absorption, emission, and scattering of light.

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A person with a mass of 72 kg and a volume of 0.096m3 floats quietly in water.
A. What is the volume of the person that is above water?
B. If an upward force F is applied to the person by a friend, the volume of the person above water increases by 0.0027 m3. Find the force F.

Answers

The force required to increase the person's volume above water by 0.0027 m³ is 732.85 N.

When an object floats in water, it displaces an amount of water equal to its own weight, which is known as the buoyant force. Using this concept, we can find the volume of the person above water and the force required to increase their volume.

A. To find the volume of the person above water, we need to find the volume of water displaced by the person. This is equal to the weight of the person, which can be found by multiplying their mass by the acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s²):

weight of person = 72 kg × 9.81 m/s² = 706.32 N

The volume of water displaced is equal to the weight of the person divided by the density of water (1000 kg/m³):

volume of water displaced = weight of person / density of water = 706.32 N / 1000 kg/m³ = 0.70632 m³

Since the person's volume is given as 0.096 m³, the volume of the person above water is:

volume above water = person's volume - volume of water displaced = 0.096 m³ - 0.70632 m³ = -0.61032 m³

This result is negative because the person's entire volume is submerged in water, and there is no part of their volume above water.

B. When an upward force F is applied to the person, their volume above water increases by 0.0027 m³. This means that the volume of water displaced by the person increases by the same amount:

change in volume of water displaced = 0.0027 m³

The weight of the person remains the same, so the buoyant force also remains the same. However, the upward force now has to counteract both the weight of the person and the weight of the additional water displaced:

F = weight of person + weight of additional water displaced

F = 706.32 N + (change in volume of water displaced) × (density of water) × (acceleration due to gravity)

F = 706.32 N + 0.0027 m³ × 1000 kg/m³ × 9.81 m/s²

F = 732.85 N

Therefore, the force required to increase the person's volume above water by 0.0027 m³ is 732.85 N.

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An infinitely long, straight, cylindrical wire of radius RR has a uniform current density →J=J^zJ→=Jz^ in cylindrical coordinates.
Cross-sectional view
Side view
What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at some point inside the wire at a distance ri B=B=
Assuming JJ is positive, what is the direction of the magnetic field at some point inside the wire?
positive zz‑direction
negative zz‑direction
positive rr‑direction
negative rr‑direction
positive ϕϕ‑direction
negative ϕϕ‑direction

Answers

The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point inside the wire at a distance ri is given by the formula: B = μ0Jri/2, where μ0 is the permeability of free space. Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field is directly proportional to the distance ri from the center of the wire.

Assuming J is positive, the direction of the magnetic field at some point inside the wire is in the positive ϕϕ-direction (azimuthal direction), as determined by the right-hand rule for current-carrying wires.
The magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance r inside the wire with radius R and uniform current density J in the z-direction can be found using Ampere's Law. For a point inside the wire, we have:
B = (μ₀ * J * r) / (2 * π)
Where B is the magnetic field, μ₀ is the permeability of free space, and r is the distance from the center of the wire (ri in the question).
Regarding the direction of the magnetic field at some point inside the wire, when J is positive, the magnetic field direction follows the right-hand rule for the circular path around the z-axis. Therefore, the magnetic field will be in the positive φ direction.

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The direction of the magnetic field at some point inside the wire is positive ϕ-direction.

To determine the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point inside the wire at a distance ri, we can use the formula for the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire, B = μ0 * I / 2πr, where μ0 is the permeability of free space, I is the current, and r is the distance from the wire. In cylindrical coordinates, r = ri and the current density J = Jz^z, so the current I can be found by integrating J over the cross-sectional area of the wire, giving I = J * πR^2. Substituting these values into the formula for B, we get B = μ0 * J * R^2 / 2 * ri * π.
The direction of the magnetic field at some point inside the wire depends on the direction of the current. Assuming J is positive, the current flows in the positive z-direction. Using the right-hand rule, we can determine that the magnetic field produced by this current flows in the positive ϕ-direction around the wire. So, the direction of the magnetic field at some point inside the wire is positive ϕ-direction.

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Problem 1 (30 pts) A coaxial cable has an inner radius of a = 0.5[mm] and an outer radius of b= 2 [mm]. The coax is filled with (nonmagnetic) Teflon having &, = 2.1 and tan d = 0.001. The conductors are made of copper, having a conductivity of o = 3.0x10' [S/m]. The copper conductors are nonmagnetic (u= uo). a) Find the attenuation constant a in [nepers/m] at a frequency of 100 [MHz]. b) Assume that we are now operating at a frequency where a = 0.05 [nepers/m]. How far along the cable do we have to go so that the signal amplitude is 15 dB smaller than at the beginning?

Answers

a) The attenuation constant of the coaxial cable at a frequency of 100 MHz is approximately 0.0004 nepers/m.

b) To achieve a signal amplitude 15 dB smaller than at the beginning, one needs to travel approximately 6.74 meters along the cable.

a) The attenuation constant (α) of the coaxial cable can be calculated using the formula:

α = √(ωμε/2) * √(σ + jωεtanδ)

where ω is the angular frequency (2πf), μ is the permeability of free space (μ₀), ε is the permittivity of Teflon (εᵣε₀), σ is the conductivity of copper (σ), ω is the angular frequency, and tanδ is the loss tangent.

First, we calculate the angular frequency:

ω = 2πf = 2π(100 × 10⁶) = 2π × 10⁸ rad/s

Next, we substitute the given values into the formula:

α = √((2π × 10⁸ × μ₀ × εᵣε₀)/2) * √(σ + j(2π × 10⁸ × ε₀εᵣtanδ))

Using the values μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A, ε₀ = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m, εᵣ = 2.1, σ = 3.0 × 10⁷ S/m, and tanδ = 0.001, we can evaluate the expression to find α.

b) To determine the distance at which the signal amplitude is 15 dB smaller, we use the formula:

L = (15/α) * (20/ln(10))

where L is the distance traveled along the cable.

Substituting the given attenuation constant (α = 0.05 nepers/m) into the equation, we can solve for L.

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is the reflex magnitude inhibited or enhanced by voluntary muscle activity in the quadriceps

Answers

Voluntary muscle activity enhances the reflex magnitude in the quadriceps.

Does voluntary muscle activity increase or decrease reflex magnitude in the quadriceps?

When a muscle is stretched, it elicits a reflex contraction known as the stretch reflex. This reflex is modulated by the brain and can be influenced by voluntary muscle activity. In the case of the quadriceps, voluntary muscle activity has been shown to enhance the reflex magnitude. This means that when a person voluntarily contracts their quadriceps muscles, the resulting reflex contraction will be stronger compared to when the person is at rest.

The mechanism behind this enhancement is thought to involve an increased sensitivity of the muscle spindles, which are sensory receptors within the muscle that detect changes in muscle length. When a muscle is actively contracting, the muscle spindles are more sensitive to changes in length and can therefore elicit a stronger reflex response.

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an excited hydrogen atom could, in principle, have a radius of 4.00 mm.
Part A:
What would be the value of n for a Bohr obit of this size?
Part B:
What would its energy be?

Answers

The value of n for a Bohr orbit with a radius of 4.00 mm would be approximately 5.88. The energy of the excited hydrogen atom with a radius of 4.00 mm would be approximately -4.97 x 10^-19 J.

To determine the value of n for a Bohr orbit with a radius of 4.00 mm, we can use the Bohr model equation:
r = n^2(h^2)/(4π^2meke^2) Rearranging the equation to solve for n, we get: n = sqrt(4π^2meke^2r)/h Plugging in the given radius of 4.00 mm,  we convert it to meters: r = 4.00 x 10^-3 m                                                          Then, we can calculate the value of n: n = sqrt(4π^2 x 9.109 x 10^-31 kg x 8.988 x 10^9 N m^2/C^2 x 4.00 x 10^-3 m) / (6.626 x 10^-34 J s)
n ≈ 5.88
To determine the energy of the excited hydrogen atom with this radius, we can use the formula for the energy of a Bohr orbit:
En = - (me^4)/(8ε0^2h^2n^2)
Plugging in the values we know, including the value of n we calculated earlier, we get:
En = - (9.109 x 10^-31 kg x (1.602 x 10^-19 C)^4) / (8 x (8.854 x 10^-12 F/m)^2 x (6.626 x 10^-34 J s)^2 x (5.88)^2)
En ≈ -4.97 x 10^-19 J

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Part A: The value of n for a Bohr obit of this size is 7 and Part B: its energy would be -1.92*10^-18 J

Part A: The radius of the excited hydrogen atom is given as 4.00 mm. We know that the radius of the Bohr orbit is given by the equation r = n^2(h^2/4π^2meke^2), where h is Planck's constant, me is the mass of the electron, ke is Coulomb's constant, and n is the principal quantum number. Therefore, we can rearrange the equation to find n: n = sqrt(r(4π^2meke^2/h^2)). Substituting the values, we get n = sqrt((4*10^-3 m)(4π^2*9.11*10^-31 kg*8.99*10^9 Nm^2/C^2/6.63*10^-34 Js)^-1) ≈ 7.
Part B: The energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is given by the equation E = -me^4/8ε^2h^2n^2, where ε is the permittivity of free space. Substituting the values, we get E = -(9.11*10^-31 kg*(2.18*10^-18 J)^4)/(8*(8.85*10^-12 F/m)^2*(6.63*10^-34 Js)^2*7^2) ≈ -1.92*10^-18 J. This negative value indicates that the electron is in an excited state and can emit energy in the form of photons to transition to a lower energy state.

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ma point source emits electromagnetic radiation uniformly in all directions. if the power output of the source is 960 w, what are the amplitudes of the electric and magnetic fields in the wave at a distance of 15.0 m from the source? (The surface area of a sphere that has radius R is 4πR^2. E0 = 8.854 x 10^12 C^2/(Nm^2). µ0 = 4π x 10^-7 T.m/A.)

Answers

The amplitudes of the electric and magnetic fields in the wave at a distance of 15.0 m from the source are approximately E0 = 4.69 x 10⁻⁶ N/C and B0 = 1.56 x 10⁻¹⁴ T.

The power radiated by a point source is given by:

P = (1/2)ε0cE0²A

where ε0 is the permittivity of free space, c is the speed of light, E0 is the amplitude of the electric field, and A is the surface area of a sphere centered on the source with radius equal to the distance from the source.

Solving for E0, we get:

E0 = sqrt(2P/(ε0cA))

The surface area of a sphere with radius 15.0 m is:

A = 4πR² = 4π(15.0 m)² = 2827 m²

Substituting the given values, we get:

E0 = √(2(960 W)/(8.854 x 10¹² C²/(Nm²) x 3 x 10⁸ m/s x 2827 m²))

     = 4.69 x 10⁻⁶ N/C

The amplitude of the magnetic field is related to the amplitude of the electric field by:

B0 = E0/c

Substituting the given values, we get:

B0 = (4.69 x 10⁻⁶ N/C)/(3 x 10⁸ m/s) = 1.56 x 10⁻¹⁴ T

As a result, the amplitudes of the electric and magnetic fields in the wave at 15.0 m from the source are almost equal E0 = 4.69 x 10⁻⁶ N/C and B0 = 1.56 x 10⁻¹⁴ T.

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A 70kg football player running at 8m/s is brought to a stop in 0.8 seconds what is the magnitude of the force that acted on the player?

Answers

The magnitude of the force is 700 N. Indicated by a negative sign, the force is operating against the player's original motion, causing deceleration or stopping.

What is Newton's second rule ?

Newton's second law of motion states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on the object, and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.

Using Newton's second rule of motion, which states that force (F) is equal to mass (m) multiplied by acceleration (a), we can determine what is happening. The acceleration in this situation is calculated by dividing the change in velocity by the change in time.

Given:

Mass (m) = 70 kg

Initial velocity (u) = 8 m/s

Final velocity (v) = 0 m/s

Time (t) = 0.8 seconds

First, let's calculate the acceleration (a) using the equation:

a = (v - u) / t

a = (0 - 8) / 0.8

a =[tex]-10 m/s^2[/tex] (negative sign indicates deceleration)

Now, we can calculate the force (F) using the equation:

[tex]F = m * a[/tex]

[tex]F = 70 kg * (-10 m/s^2)[/tex]

[tex]F = -700 N[/tex]

Therefore, The magnitude of the force is 700 N. Indicated by a negative sign, the force is operating against the player's original motion, causing deceleration or stopping. This is important to keep in mind.

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A 2. 60 kg lion runs at a speed of 5. 00 m/s until he sees his prey. The lion then speeds up 8. 00 m/s to catch it. How much work did do after he speed up?

Answers

The lion does additional work of 676 J after speeding up to catch its prey. After the lion sees its prey, it accelerates from its initial speed of 5.00 m/s to a final speed of 8.00 m/s.

To calculate the additional work done, we need to find the change in kinetic energy of the lion. The formula for kinetic energy is given by [tex]K.E. = (1/2)mv^2[/tex], where m is the mass of the lion and v is its velocity.

First, let's calculate the initial kinetic energy of the lion:

[tex]K.E. = (1/2)mv^2 = (1/2)(2.60 kg)(5.00 m/s)^2 = 32.50 J[/tex]

Next, we calculate the final kinetic energy of the lion after it speeds up:

[tex]K.E. = (1/2)mv^2 = (1/2)(2.60 kg)(8.00 m/s)^2 = 83.20 J[/tex]

The change in kinetic energy is given by the difference between the final and initial kinetic energies:

Change in K.E. = Final K.E. - Initial K.E.

Change in K.E. = 83.20 J - 32.50 J

Change in K.E. = 50.70 J

Therefore, the lion does an additional work of 50.70 J after speeding up to catch its prey.

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