Use the map below to answer the following question:



To where had Christianity spread by 476 AD?

A: The west of Britain
B: Most of Africa
C: Most of the Roman Empire
D: The southern part of Asia Minor

Use The Map Below To Answer The Following Question:To Where Had Christianity Spread By 476 AD?A: The

Answers

Answer 1

By 476 AD, Christianity had spread to most of the Roman Empire, which included modern-day Europe, the Middle East, and North Africa. Therefore, the correct option is C: Most of the Roman Empire.

How did the emergence of Christianity begin before 476 AD?

During the first few centuries of the Common Era, Christianity emerged in the eastern Mediterranean region, primarily in Judea, which was then part of the Roman Empire. From there, it spread throughout the Roman Empire, gaining significant numbers of converts in places such as Egypt, Greece, and Rome itself.

By the year 380 AD, Christianity had become the official religion of the Roman Empire, and it continued to spread throughout the Empire in the centuries that followed. By the time the Western Roman Empire fell in 476 AD, Christianity had become the dominant religion in most of the territories that had been part of the Empire.

However, it is important to note that the spread of Christianity was not uniform across all regions of the Roman Empire. Some areas, such as the farthest reaches of the Empire in Britain, remained largely pagan until much later.

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Related Questions

fill in the blank. someone with a split brain will have trouble verbally identifying an object projected in their___visual field. please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices upper lower right left

Answers

Answer: Left

Explanation:

which statement is correct concerning the food chain? a. every component of the food chain forms a trophic level b. inter-relation between different food chains is known as a food web c. all the chains formed by nutritional relations are used to understand energy flow. d. all of the above

Answers

All the given statements are true regarding the food chain. A trophic level is established by each link in the food chain; a food web is the result of the interactions between various food chains; and energy flow is explained by all the chains created by nutritional relationships.

The sequence of events in an ecosystem known as a "food chain" occurs when one live organism eats another organism, which is then eaten by a larger organism. A food chain is created by the transfer of energy and nutrients between organisms at various trophic levels. The feeding habits or connections between living things are also explained by the food chain. Trophic level is the term used to describe the sequential steps in a food chain, starting with producers at the bottom and moving up to primary, secondary, and tertiary consumers. Trophic levels refer to all positions in a food chain.

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Clindamycin 5 mg/kg/day IV QID for infection is ordered. You have Clindamycin 100 mg/ml. The child weighs 60 lb. How much of this solution is needed per each IV injection?

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0.340194 ml (or approximately 0.34 ml) of the Clindamycin 100 mg/ml solution is needed for each IV injection.

What is an IV injection?

An intravenous (IV) injection is described as an injection of a medication or another substance into a vein and directly into the bloodstream.

In order to find  the amount of Clindamycin solution needed per injection, we will use the following formula:

Amount of solution (ml) = Amount of drug (mg) ÷ Concentration of solution (mg/ml)

Amount of solution (ml) = Amount of drug (mg) ÷ Concentration of solution (mg/ml)

= 34.0194 mg ÷ 100 mg/ml = 0.340194 ml

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What is binomial nomenclature?

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Answer:

a system of naming plants and animals in which each species is given a name consisting of two terms of which the first names the genus and the second the species itself.

Explanation:

hope this helps ^w^

Answer:

In biology, there is a system for naming species called binomial nomenclature. It consists of two Latin names, the first of which designates the genus and the second of which designates the species that belongs to that genus. The first letter of a species name is not capitalised, whereas the first letter of a genus name is always capitalised. Italics are always used to denote the species name.

Explanation:

Carl Linnaeus, a Swedish naturalist, developed the binomial nomenclature, which is still in use today. This methodology offers a consistent method for naming species and enables straightforward communication among scientists as well as across national boundaries and linguistic barriers.

For example, the domestic cat's scientific name is Felis catus. Felis, the first term, refers to the genus, and catus, the second name, to the species found in that genus.

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ACCORDING TO MODERN THEORIES, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A FUNCTION OF HUMAN HAIR? MAINTAIN TEMPERATURE OF TRUNK & LIMBS, TRANSMISSION OF SEXUAL SCENTS, MAINTAIN TEMPERATURE OF THE HEAD, PROTECT FROM DEBRIS, EXPRESS NONVERBAL COMMUNICATION.

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According to the modern theories, the function of human hair is: maintain temperature of trunk and limbs.

Hairs are the filament like structures that emerge out from the body through the skin. The hairs are made up of proteins like the keratin. The hair emerges from the hair root and the region flanking outside the skin is called shaft.

The normal range of body temperature in which all the organs can function appropriately is 36.5–37.5 °C. The hairs of the whole body are also involved in thermoregulation as they lie flat when the temperature is warm and rise up when the body feels cold.

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Humans have changed their environment through technological development. Hypothesize what changes will occur to humans as a result of this large change in environment.

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Humans have been altering the physical environment for thousands of years, whether it be through destroying farms to grow crops or muddying streams to divert and store water.

What characteristics does water have?

Although the structure of water molecules (H 2 O) is straightforward, the compound's physical and chemical characteristics are incredibly complex and unlike to those of most compounds found on Earth.

What does water consist of?

University of Illinois at Plano Department of Chemistry Professor and Associate Head. author of many books, including Chemical Fundamentals. Water is a substance that exists in the gas, liquid, and solid phases and is made up of the chemical components oxygen and hydrogen. One of most prevalent and necessary substances is it.

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Which of the following is appropriate for the box identified with a question mark?
1. Increased ESV
2. Decreased afterload
3. Decreased EDV
4. Increased contractility

Answers

An rise in contractility typically results in an increase in stroke volume and, as a result, preload. As according Starling's law of a heart, a rise in preload causes an increase in the force of contraction.

What occurs when contractility is higher?

The intensity of myocyte contract, also known as inotropy, is referred to as contractility. The volume of the heart's stroke grows even as force of contraction rises because the heart can circulate more blood out of it.

What does the term "heart contractility" mean?

ABSTRACT. When pressure (aortic pressure) and preload are present, the relative capacity of the heart to evacuate a stroke volume (SV) is known as contractility (end-diastolic volume; EDV).

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How does a sponge picked from under a rock at the shores feels when touched

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Because they have soft skeletons made of flexible fibrous spongin, these sponges feel soft and springy to the touch.

What is the texture of rock sponges?

Sponges picked from under a rock at the shore may have a variety of textures depending on the species and the conditions they are living in. Some sponges can feel soft and squishy, while others may feel rough or bumpy.

Some sponges may also have a slimy or slippery texture, due to the presence of mucus or other substances on the surface of the sponge. In general, sponges are often described as feeling spongy or bouncy when touched.

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place the events that occur in the transition from endospore to a vegetative cell in order. put the first event at the top.

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The events that occur in the transition from endospore to a vegetative cell in order are : activation, germination and outgrowth.

What is the transition from endospore to vegetative cell?

The process of conversion of endospore to vegetative cell has three steps: activation, germination, and outgrowth. In some species, mild heat treatment is able to activate process of germination and even without activation, germination can occur when environmental conditions are suitable for cell growth.

Vegetative cell is the active form for bacterial cells and the endospore can be thought of as a dormant form of the cell. It allows for survival of the adverse conditions but it does not allow the cell to grow or reproduce.

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what are the estimated allele frequencies in a population if the frequency of the dominant phenotype is 0.64? (hint: make sure you understand what information you are given)

Answers

The Hardy-Weinberg equation, which assumes that the population is in genetic equilibrium, may be used to determine the predicted allele frequencies in a population.

Since only those who have two copies of the dominant allele may display the dominant phenotype, the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (p-2) is equal to the frequency of the dominant phenotype, which is 0.64.

In order to find p, we may utilize the equation as follows:

[tex]p^2 = 0.64[/tex]

[tex]p = \sqrt{0.64} = 0.8[/tex]

As a result, it is projected that the dominant allele (p) has a frequency of 0.8, whereas the recessive allele (q) has a frequency of:

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.8 = 0.2

Therefore, p=0.8 and q=0.2 are the expected allele frequencies under this group.

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A semipermeable membrane is placed between the following solution. Which solution will decrease in volume?Solution A: 3.28% (m/v) starch.Solution B: 4.12% (m/v) starch.

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Since the m/v (mass/volume) ratio of solution B is higher than that of solution A, therefore the semi-permeable membrane will cause the decrease in volume of solution A due to osmosis.

Osmosis is the process of movement of solvent particles from the region of their higher concentration to the region of lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane. It can be conversely said that the movement of solvent occurs from low solute region to high solute region.

A semi-permeable membrane is a thin membrane which allows the transfer of only solvent and very small sized molecules through it. Large sized solute particles cannot pass through it.

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assuming the population is in hardy weinberg equilibruym, what is the frequency of the aa genotype in this population

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The frequency of the aa genotype in a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is simply the square of the frequency of the recessive allele (a).

In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive allele (a) is represented by q, and the frequency of the dominant allele (A) is represented by p. Therefore, q^2 represents the frequency of the aa genotype.

This means that if the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.4 (q=0.4), the frequency of the aa genotype would be 0.16 (q^2=0.40.4=0.16). Similarly, if the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.2 (q=0.2), the frequency of the aa genotype would be 0.04 (q^2=0.20.2=0.04).

Overall, understanding the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium allows us to predict the frequency of genotypes in a population and study the effects of evolutionary factors such as genetic drift, mutation, migration, and selection.

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Environmental resistance causes populations to A. increase C. decline B. grow D. remain stable​

Answers

Answer :
As populations increase environmental resistance causes the growth rate to slow down, until carrying capacity is reached.

What type of gas is a source of air pollution?
O oxygen
O helium
O carbon dioxide
O carbon monoxide

Answers

Carbon monoxide. It will kill you

What is the positively charged protein that is part of the nucleosome?

Answers

Histone is basically a positively charged protein which is a part of the nucleosome.

Histones are basically positively charged, highly basic proteins which are abundant in lysine as well as the arginine residues which are found in the eukaryotic cell nuclei. They happen to act as spools around which the DNA winds in order to create structural units which are known as the nucleosomes. They play a very crucial role in the packaging of DNA.

There are basically five families of the histone proteins which are the designated H1/H5 (also known as linker histones), H2, H3, as well as H4 (which are the core histones). The nucleosome core is composed of two H2A-H2B dimers as well as a H3-H4 tetramer. The negatively charged winds around the positively charged histones.

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Did Atom is the smallest level of organization

Answers

Answer: yes atom is the smallest level of organization

Explanation:

all of the following are essential for an electron transport chain to function except . multiple choice question. protein complexes that function as proton pumps a membrane a terminal electron acceptor atp electron carriers such as quinones, cytochromes, and flavoproteins electrons

Answers

All of the above described are essential for an electron transport chain to function except atp, which is the product of the synthesis of energy.

What is the electron transport chain of cell respiration?

The electron transport chain of cellular respiration is a series of steps in oxidative phosphorylation that used different proteins to generate ATP, the energy coin of the cell.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the electron transport chain of the cell respiration generates ate which is used to carry out metabolic functions in the cell.

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Alex is a physiologist studying the effect of diet on Olympic athletes. He hypothesizes that a calcium-enriched diet will decrease the race times of sprinters. Which of the following is the best argument of expected outcome?

Answers

A group of sprinters given the diet will show a greater decrease in race times compared to an otherwise similar group of sprinters not given the diet. Hence, option D is correct.

What are the effects of diet on Olympic athletes?

Sports performance can be improved by a proper diet. The majority of an athlete's vitamin and mineral requirements should be covered by a well-planned, nutrient-rich diet, which also includes adequate protein to support muscle growth and repair. The diet should be built around foods high in unprocessed carbohydrates, such as wholegrain bread and cereals.

Thus, a group of sprinters given the diet will show a greater decrease in race times compared to an otherwise similar group of sprinters not given the diet. Hence, option D is correct.

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the full question is this:

Alex is a physiologist studying the effect of diet on Olympic athletes. He hypothesizes that a calcium-enriched diet will decrease the race times of sprinters. Which of the following is the best argument of expected outcome?

Incorrect    

 A. A group of sprinters given the diet will show a decrease in muscle mass compared to an otherwise similar group of sprinters not given the diet.    

B. A group of sprinters given the diet will show an increase greater increase in race times compared to an otherwise similar group of sprinters not given the diet.    

C. A group of sprinters given the diet will show a greater increase in vigor compared to an otherwise similar group of sprinters not given the diet.    

D. A group of sprinters given the diet will show a greater decrease in race times compared to an otherwise similar group of sprinters not given the diet.    

E. A group of sprinters given the diet will show a greater increase in muscle mass compared to an otherwise similar group of sprinters not given the diet.    

Please help
The breakdown of rock via the forces of water, wind, and temperature variation is known as _____. During this process, rocks are broken down into pieces known as _____.
A) sedimentation; igneous
B) metamorphism; sediment
C) weathering; sediment
D) weathering; erosion

Answers

Answer:  C) weathering; sediment

Explanation:

C) weathering; sediment. Weathering is the breakdown of rock via the forces of water, wind, and temperature variation. During this process, rocks are broken down into pieces known as sediment. Sediment can be any type of material, such as sand, gravel, or even silt.

SOMEONE PLEASE HELP I NEED THIS DONE TODAY! ( will give brainliest)
Draw a model to show how the metamorphic rock gneiss forms and then changes into a sedimentary rock. Your model should include how and where the rocks form and the source of energy for each change. Be sure to label each part of your model and describe what it shows.

Answers

Answer:

Metamorphic rock gneiss is formed by changing schist, granite, or volcanic rocks through intense heat and pressure.Metamorphic rock gneiss is turned into a sedimentary rock due to geologic uplift and the erosion of the rock and soil above them. Metamorphic rocks will be exposed to weathering processes at the surface and may break down into sediment. Once the gneiss is turned into the sediment, they could be compressed to make sedimentary rocks, restarting the cycle.

Explanation:

I hope it helps:)

Pls, tell me if I got it wrong:)

honey possums lick nectar from flowers using a long tongue made of soft muscle. what evidence is this

Answers

Answer:

This proves that honey possums are more likely to be nectar pollinators which go from plant to plant pollinating them with the nectars they collected.

which of the following describe two partially reproductively isolated populations that have become sympatric?

Answers

The following describes two partially reproductively isolated populations that have become sympatric are

Gene flow between the populations will occurThe populations may eventually become separate species through reinforcementThe populations may eventually lose their genetic distinctiveness

Speciаtion is the process by which new species form. It occurs when groups in а species become reproductively isolаted аnd diverge. In аllopаtric speciаtion, groups from аn аncestrаl populаtion evolve into sepаrаte species due to а period of geogrаphicаl sepаrаtion. In sympаtric speciаtion, groups from the sаme аncestrаl populаtion evolve into sepаrаte species without аny geogrаphicаl sepаrаtion.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full options were

A. Gene flow between the populations will occur.

B. The populations may eventually become separate species through reinforcement.

C. The populations will continue to be partially reproductively isolated.

D. The populations may eventually lose their genetic distinctiveness.

E. Hybrids will be inviable or infertile.

Thus, the correct options were A, B, and D.

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Which stage of the demographic transition would the United States be in?

Industrializing

Postindustrial

Preindustrial

Mature industrial

Answers

The United States has a relatively low birth rate and a high life expectancy, characteristic of the mature industrial stage.

What is the mature industrial stage?

In the mature industrial stage, birth rates have declined due to increased access to family planning and women's education. Death rates have also declined due to improved public health and medical care. As a result, population growth is slower, and the population's age structure shifts towards an older demographic.

Explain demographic transition.

The demographic transition is a model that describes changes in birth and death rates over time in a population as it transitions from preindustrial to industrial and postindustrial societies.

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Ihe fast and long-distance movement of mitochondria along the axon of animal nerve cells is thought to be facilitated mainly by the motor proteins dynein and kinesin. Which (if any) of the following drugs is/are expected to reduce movement of mitochondria between the cell body and the terminal branch of an axon in animal nerve cells? (Circle YES or NO). YES/NO Excess 3-O-methyl glucose in the medium (prevents glycolysis by reducing glucose use by cells) YES/NO FCCP (inhibits mitochondrial production of ATP) YES/NO Cytochalasin D (disrupts actin filaments) activity) YES/NO BDM (inhibits myosin motor

Answers

The majority of the hydrogen gas required to drive a cell's metabolic operations is produced by mtDNA, which are lattice cell organelles (mitochondrion, singular).

What are mitochondria and what function do they do?

Phosphocreatine, a tiny molecule, serves as a storage container for the biochemical energy generated by the mitochondria.Kinesin, dynein, and myosin work together just to move the mitochondria.

Additionally, motors, an anchoring mechanism, and a sensor are part of mitochondrial movement. Cyclin—dependent kinases kinase 5 inhibition and Transcription factor kinase 3 activation are other ways to stop mitochondrial mobility.

Kinesin 1, which is essential for mitochondria motility, is released by CDK5 and GSK3. No, since inhibiting metabolism has no impact on the mobility of mitochondria.

Because FCCP suppresses ATP synthase and decouples the acid gradient across the inner membrane, it can also stop mitochondria transport.

Therefore, Yes, as fibres in axons travel together with organelles. Mitochondrial mobility won't be happening if the actin filament is damaged. Yes, since mitochondrial axonal transportation is bidirectional.

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Which direction do
free Hydrogen (H+)
ions move a solution
on the pH scale?

Answers

Answer:

acid

Explanation:

An acidic solution has a high concentration of hydrogen ions (H

+

+

start superscript, plus, end superscript), greater than that of pure water.

What is the function of the eustachian tube? O equalizes air pressure in the middle ear. O funnels sound onto the tympanic membrane. O transmits vibrations to the cochlea. O sends electrical impulses to the brain.

Answers

The Eustachian tube's functions include bringing fresh air into the middle ear cavity and balancing pressure between both the outer and center ears.

Eustachian tubes: what are they?

The bottom of your esophagus and the middle ears are connected by eustachian tubes. They aid in ear fluid drainage and ear pressure balancing. Your eustachian tubes may occasionally become obstructed as a result of diseases, allergies, or colds.

How are Eustachian tube issues fixed?

Decongestants or antihistamines are two popular treatments for Eustachian tube dysfunction. Sometimes, the problem could get worse as a result of this treatment. Contact your doctor if prescription medications or antidepressants do not relieve your symptoms. For treatment, you must visit an expert in ears, noses, and throats.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. One cause of genetic drift is _______, in which a small group of individuals leaves its home population and establishes a new, isolated settlement.

Answers

The founder effect, in which a small group of people departs from their native population and finds a brand-new, isolated community, is one factor contributing to genetic drift.

The founder effect, in terms of genetics, is the reduction in genomic variability that occurs when a small population splits off from a larger one. In terms of genotypes and physical characteristics, which may be very different from the original bigger population, the resulting new subpopulation will eventually resemble the original small, isolated group. The fact that some subgroups of the population are more likely to have certain genetic illnesses may also be explained by the founder effect. On rare occasions, a founder effect may aid in the emergence of new species. Due to the founder effect, the smaller group that separated from the larger population may have had less genetic diversity.

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which of the following is the proper description of the human body in the anatomical position

Answers

Anatomical posture, also known as conventional anatomical position, describes how the body is positioned while it is standing straight up, facing forward, with both arms hanging by its sides and palms facing front.

Why is anatomical position significant? What is it?

The body is upright in the anatomical posture, with the feet slightly apart and the arms at the sides. It is simple to recall since it looks similar to "standing at attention," with the exception that the palms are facing forward and the thumbs are pointing away from the body.

A person is standing straight up with their lower limbs close together or slightly apart, their feet flat on the ground, their palms facing front, and their upper limbs at their sides.

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Which of these would cause the most physical weathering?
• A. A shallow, slow-moving river
• B. Sand being blown across a field
• c. A deep, fast-moving river
D. The roots of a large tree

Answers

The roots of a large tree would cause the most physical weathering. Therefore, option (D) is correct.

What is physical weathering?

Physical weathering is the breakdown of rocks, soils, and minerals through mechanical or physical forces, without any change in their chemical composition. This process can occur due to temperature changes, freezing and thawing, abrasion, and the actions of plants and animals.

Physical weathering can lead to the breakdown of rocks into smaller pieces, which can then be more easily transported by wind, water, or ice. It can also create new surfaces on rocks, which can be more easily attacked by chemical weathering.

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a student is building a model to demonstrate and explain mantle convection. which of the following models is most accurate
a toy bulldozers are placed on opposite sides of a carpet, causing the carpet to crumble
b. a bar magnet is placed inside a ball, causing iron fillings to form a pattern around the ball
c. an electric current is passed through a copper wire surrounding a nail, causing the nail to become magnetized
d. a lamp heats a waxy substance in the bottom of a container, causing it to rise up to the top of the container, where it then cools and sinks again

Answers

Answer:

Which model is most accurate? a. Toy bulldozers are placed on opposite sides of a carpet, causing the carpet to crumple. b. A bar magnet is placed inside a ...

Explanation:

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An auditor withdrew from further association with a nonissuer entity after issuing an audit report on it. Subsequently, the auditor discovered facts that, if known to the auditor at the date of the auditor' s report, could have caused the auditor to revise the report. Which of the following statements about this circumstance is correct?A. . The auditor should talk with the successor auditor about the circumstances of the subsequently discovered information and advise whether the financial statements should be revised.B. The auditor should extend audit procedures with regard to management' s revised financial statements with the objective of expressing a dual-dated qualified opinion.C. The auditor should discuss the matter with management and, if it is determined that the financial statements need revision, ask how management intends to address the matter in the financial statements.D. Because the auditor is no longer associated with the entity, the auditor has no further responsibilities with regard to the financial statements. what happens when a charged insulating object is brought near an uncharged conducting object without touching it? Based on their positions in the periodic table, predict which has the largest first ionization energy: Mg, Ba, B, O, Te.answer choicesMgBaBOTe what are the ordered pairs of the solution for this system of equations f(x) = x^2 -2x+3 ; f(x) = -2x + 12 What do we call chromosomepairs 1-22?A. karyotypeB. Sex chromosomesC. Autosomal chromosomesD. Gametes Evaluate 4y x if x = 2 and y =5 the data set shows the numbers of hours students study the week before the a test. find an interpert the mean absolute deviation of the data.1, 2, 5,5,5,5,6,7,8,9. Which of the following statements about the Articles of Confederation is TRUE?A Foreign governments were responsible for the Rev war debtB The state governments were responsible for the rev war debtC The federal gov was responsible for the rev war debt The energy that produces a response in the sense organs is called a:________ What is stoichiometry formula? as a member of the crisis management team, you are required to attend our biannual crisis management workshops. these workshops will prepare you to lead your division in the event of a company crisis. the workshops always take place during the second week in january, and they are held at our headquarters in dallas, texas. workshop registration information is available on the company website. identify the function of the sentence the workshops always take place during the second week in january, and they are held at our headquarters in dallas, texas. a. support sentence b. topic sentence 6. Write the unit rate for the following: a) Kate sews 100 dresses in a 20 day month. b) Kim runs 5 km in 30 minutes. What are the risks in Information Assurance? In 2017, the United States exported approximately $500 million of beef to Mexico, and Mexico exported approximately $500 million of beef to the United States. Which of the following best explains this international supply chain?answer choicesO United States consumers prefer to purchase specialty products made from beef raised in Mexico.O Mexico depends on beef imports because domestic beef production is too low.O United States and Mexican producers rely on each others market to sell certain beef products.O The United States and Mexico have an agreement to evenly exchange beef products. How do you draw the structure of SF6? what did many southern states use to limit civil rights during reconstruction Why is college important ? We wish to test the hypothesis that music improves learning. We compare test scores of students who study while listening to music with those who study in silence. Which of the following is an extraneous variable in this experiment?a. the presence or absence of musicb. the students' test scoresc. the amount of time allowed for studyingd. silence Which problem situation could be solved using the open sentence below?24 - k = ?A.Mrs. Garcia took 24 science papers home to grade. She graded k science papers before dinner. How many science papers did she have to grade after dinner?B.Mrs. Garcia took 24 science papers and k reading papers home to grade. How many papers did she have to grade?C.Mrs. Garcia had k science papers to grade. She now has 22 left to grade. How many papers did she grade already?D. Mrs. Garcia has 22 science papers and 22 reading papers to grade. If she has k papers to grade in all, how many papers does she have to grade? Which supergroup of eukaryotes includes animals and fungi? Opisthokonta, Amoebozoa, Archaeplastida, Rhizaria, Chromalveolata, Excavata.