What are the 4 parts in order for abdominal assessment?

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Answer 1

The four parts in order for abdominal assessment are as follows:

Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation.

Inspection include looking for any apparent anomalies in the abdomen, such as scars, distention, lumps, or visible pulsations.

Auscultation is the process of listening to bowel noises with a stethoscope. Bowel sounds can offer information regarding bowel movement, and the absence or hyperactivity of bowel sounds may suggest underlying gastrointestinal disorders.

Percussion is a technique that includes tapping on the abdomen to examine the density and resonance of the underlying organs. The ensuing noises can aid in the identification of organ location and size, as well as the detection of fluid or air in the abdominal cavity.

Palpation is the process of feeling the belly with the hands for any anomalies such as lumps, discomfort, or organ enlargement. Palpation can also be used to evaluate the consistency and texture of the abdominal organs, as well as to identify any regions of pain or discomfort.

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Related Questions

Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair.
A) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection.
B) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot.
C) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.
D) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers.

Answers

The correct statement regarding tissue repair is C) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.

Inflammation is the body's natural reaction to damage or infection. Inflammation prompts the body to send white blood cells and other substances to the injured location to start the healing process during tissue restoration.

Capillaries enlarge during this process, making them more permeable and allowing white blood cells and other fluids to flow through and reach the injured site to aid in healing.

Red blood cells also escape from the circulatory system and reach the damaged region as a result of the capillaries' increased permeability, producing a clot that aids in stopping the bleeding and establishing a protective environment for the healing process.

The new capillaries, fibroblasts, and inflammatory cells that enter the wound produce granulation tissue, which will eventually form a scar.

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Which approach to understanding mental disorders is based on the belief that cognitive, interpersonal, emotional, and similar factors play an important role in the genesis of mental disorders?
a. psychological
b. sociocultural
c. biological
d. multicultural

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The a. psychological approach is aimed at understanding mental disorders based on the belief that cognitive, interpersonal, emotional, and similar factors play an important role in the genesis of mental disorders.

What is the psychological approach of sciences?

The  psychological approach of sciences makes reference to an area within biology aimed at understanding the development of cognitive processes based on the study of human mental brain disorders

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the psychological approach of sciences  can decipher human behaviors and mental disorders based on cognitive features.

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what is definition of medical asepsis?

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Medical asepsis is the state of being free of pathogenic germs. Stopping the spread of germs in medical environments is the aim of medical asepsis. A. Keeping a facility's air sanitised for medicinal purposes.

How are asepsis procedures in medicine used?

Preventing pathogen contamination requires using an aseptic technique. The risk of infection must be minimised by adhering to the strictest rules. Healthcare personnel employ aseptic method in surgical units, hospitals, outpatient care centres, and other medical settings.

Provide instances of what a medical asepsis is.

Medical asepsis, often known as a clean approach, lessens the quantity of bacteria and inhibits growth, although it does not entirely eliminate the risk. Cleaning medical aseptic techniques, washing hands, and donning gloves, gowns, and face masks are all essential procedures.

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Compare and contrast the definition in DSM-IV from the proposed revision for DSM-5. Do you see any significant changes?

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Answer: Although there may be some differences between the two, it is most likely that the mental disorders only have some minor changes, so it is basically the same.

Explanation:

in the systemic capillaries in muscle tissue, hemoglobin releases virtually all the oxygen it is carrying and becomes completely desaturated. True/False

Answers

True. Hemoglobin is a protein present in red blood cells that is crucial for carrying oxygen throughout the body.

The reduction in pressure that occurs when haemoglobin enters the systemic capillaries in muscle tissue causes it to relinquish almost all of the oxygen it is carrying, causing it to become entirely desaturated.

The red blood cell reacts as a result of this desaturation, releasing oxygen into the tissue. The energy required for muscle contraction is subsequently created using this oxygen.

Because oxygen is important for every metabolic function, this release of oxygen into the muscle tissue is required to supply the energy required for muscular contraction.

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the number of years of life remaining to a person at a given age is called

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It’s called Life Expectancy

What is the ICD-10 for sinus tachycardia?

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In ICD‐10, sinus tachycardia leads to code R00. 0.

Sinus tachycardia is defined by an increase in the rate of electrical impulses originating from the sinoatrial node. Sinus tachycardia in adults is described as a heart rate more than 100 beats per minute (bpm). An typical adult's resting heart rate is 60-90 beats per minute.

Tachycardia is frequently asymptomatic. It is frequently a secondary symptom of a main illness condition and might indicate the severity of a disease. If the heart rate is excessively fast, cardiac output may decrease due to a significantly shortened ventricular filling time. Fast rates, while correcting for ischemia elsewhere, increase myocardial oxygen demand and limit coronary blood flow, causing ischemic heart disease or valvular disease.

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what is the difference outpatient vs inpatient

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The main difference between outpatient and inpatient care is the length of time that the patient stays in the healthcare facility.

Outpatient care refers to medical treatment or procedures that do not require an overnight stay in a hospital or other healthcare facility. Outpatient care can include services such as doctor's appointments, diagnostic tests, physical therapy, and some surgeries.

Patients receiving outpatient care are generally able to go home the same day and continue their recovery outside of the healthcare facility. Inpatient care, on the other hand, refers to medical treatment or procedures that require an overnight stay in a hospital or other healthcare facility.

This type of care is typically reserved for patients who require more intensive treatment, such as surgery, complex medical procedures, or management of serious medical conditions. Patients receiving inpatient care are typically monitored closely by healthcare professionals and may have access to around-the-clock care.

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Reasons why nurses need to understand the difference between subjective vs. Objective data in nursing ?

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Nurses can produce reliable documentation by distinguishing between subjective and objective nursing data.

For a number of reasons, nurses must be aware of the distinction between subjective and objective nursing data. The following are a few of the main arguments in favour of nurses understanding the distinction between these two categories of data.

Nurses can effectively share their findings and work with team members when they learn to distinguish between objective and subjective data in nursing.Nurses can distinguish between what patients are reporting and what the medical evidence reveals by understanding the distinction between subjective and objective nursing data.

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What is waste pro tallahassee ?

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The mission of waste Pro is to create excellent resource ecosystems that safeguard the environment and support local people.

Three main goals guided the establishment of our company in 2001, and they still guide it today: to provide exceptional customer service, maximise recycling, and create cost savings for our clients. We are one of the most rapidly expanding waste management businesses in the south of the United States, and we have a well-established network of business experts who can create and provide comprehensive garbage management services that are effective regardless of location or waste kind. This implies that we are able to provide local knowledge, carry out specific services, and perform on-site training.

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What is the ICD 10 code for hyperbilirubinemia?

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"E80.6" is the ICD-10 code for hyperbilirubinemia. The ICD-10 coding scheme assigns this code to Chapter 4 (Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases).

A medical disorder called hyperbilirubinemia is defined by high amounts of bilirubin in the blood. When the liver breaks down red blood cells, bilirubin, a yellow pigment, is created. Overly high bilirubin levels might result in skin and eye yellowing (jaundice). Many illnesses, such as liver disease, problems with the red blood cells, and genetic disorders, can result in hyperbilirubinemia. In extreme circumstances, it may cause death, brain damage, hearing loss, or other issues. Depending on the underlying reason, hyperbilirubinemia may be treated with medicine, phototherapy, or, in rare circumstances, a blood transfusion.

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The difference between hours of sleep needed and actual hours slept is a. sleep inertia. b. sleep pattern. c. sleep ratio. d. sleep debt. d

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Should be sleep debt

what is the meaning of c&s medical abbreviation?

Answers

Answer:

Culture and Sensitivity (C&S), Urine.

Which condition does NOT require regulatory approval before reinstatement?a. Hep Ab. Norovirusc. c. Sore throat with feverd. d. illness caused by shigella app

Answers

The condition that does not require regulatory approval before reinstatement is sore throat with fever, thus the correct option is (c).

The typical symptoms of some food handlers who have been diagnosed with these foodborne infections may not manifest, or they may have already subsided. Determine whether the food handler has to be barred from the establishment or prohibited from handling or being around food, and when the exclusion or restriction can be lifted, in consultation with the local regulatory authority.

Refrain from allowing the food handler to handle or be near food if they have a fever and a sore throat. When a medical professional issues a written release, the food handler is authorized to handle or be near food.

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What is the ICD-10 code for 2023 pancytopenia?

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The ICD-10 code D61.81 is used to indicate pancytopenia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the blood.

In the ICD-10, the code D61.81 is assigned to "Other specified aplastic anaemias and other bone marrow failure syndromes," and it specifically refers to pancytopenia caused by drugs and toxins.

It's important to note that pancytopenia can have a variety of underlying causes, and the specific cause may need to be identified and treated in order to effectively manage the condition. As a result, before assigning an ICD-10 code, a proper diagnosis and workup are required.

Pancytopenia is a condition in which a person's blood cell levels are low in all three categories: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This can cause fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, bruising and bleeding, and an increased risk of infection.

The ICD-10 code D61.81 is used to describe pancytopenia caused by drugs or toxins. This indicates that the condition was caused by exposure to medications or chemicals that have a toxic effect on the bone marrow, which is where blood cells are produced. Among the medications that can cause pancytopenia are chemotherapy drugs, antiepileptic medications, and antibiotics.

It is important to note that D61.81 is not the only ICD-10 code that can be used to indicate pancytopenia, as the condition can have a variety of underlying causes. Pancytopenia, for example, can be caused by viral infections, autoimmune diseases, bone marrow disorders, and genetic conditions. As a result, before assigning an ICD-10 code, a proper diagnosis and workup are required.

When assigning an ICD-10 code for pancytopenia, the severity of the condition may be considered in addition to the underlying cause. Depending on the number of blood cells in the body, different codes can be used to indicate mild, moderate, or severe pancytopenia.

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What are nursing implications for diabetes?

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The various nursing implications for diabetes are healthy diet, regular exercises to burn calories, regulate weight and regulate sugar content in the diet.

Diabetes is the condition in which the body unable to regulate sugar concentration in the body due to which sugar increases abnormally high in limits causing problems in arteries and veins and functioning of various blood vessels/ tissues/ organs. The condition of heart attack, unconsciousness and high uncontrolled urine output may also arise due to diabetes.

The various implications for diabetes include taking controlled diet, timely medications, giving the foot massage to avoid swelling, avoid artificial sweetening products, maintain normal weight, etc. Nursing implications in general include all those steps which are involved in monitoring, teaching and assessing for the complications associated with any disease.

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The Frank-Starling law of the heart states?
a. The greater the stroke volume the greater the heart rate.
b. The more the heart is stretched pre-contraction the stronger the force of contraction.
c. The greater the afterload the lower the pressure that must be overcome.
d. The lower the preload on the heart the greater the force of contraction.
e. The faster the heart rate the greater the volume of blood pumped.

Answers

Answer:

B. The more the heart is stretched pre-contraction the stronger the force of contraction.

Explanation:

What is the ICD-10 code for meningioma?

Answers

The ICD-10 code is D32. Meninges, nonspecific benign neoplasm. According to the WHO, frontal lobe malignant neoplasms fall within the category of malignant neoplasms.

What is the meningioma diagnosis?

A comprehensive neurological examination and an imaging test using contrast dye, such as a computerised tomography (CT) scan, are the first steps in a neurologist's diagnosis of a meningioma. With a CT scan, X-rays are taken to produce cross-sectional images of your entire brain.

How is meningioma classified?

For many years, the appearance of the tumour tissue under a microscope, particularly how quickly the tumour cells appear to have been growing, has been used to classify meningiomas into tumour grades. Grade 1 cancers expand slowly, grade 3 tumours expand rapidly, and grade 2 tumours expand in a middle-of-the-road manner.

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highly complex motor skills should be taught as a whole so the intricacies of timing can be mastered.truefalse

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The given statement that highly complex motor skills should be taught as a whole so the intricacies of timing can be mastered, is false because teaching them without breaking into smaller components can be overwhelming for the learner.

Highly complex motor skills can be broken down into smaller components or sub-skills to make them more manageable for the learner. This process is called "task decomposition" and involves breaking down a complex skill into smaller, more manageable sub-skills that can be practiced and mastered individually.

Once the learner has mastered the sub-skills, they can then be integrated into the whole skill. Teaching highly complex motor skills as a whole without breaking them down into smaller components can overwhelm the learner, making it difficult for them to develop the necessary skills and timing, the statement is false.

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What is the ICD-10 code for recurrent rotator cuff tear?

Answers

According to the WHO, the ICD-10 number M75. 1 för Rotator cuff tear and rupture, not stated as traumatic, falls within the category of "Soft tissue disorders."

What distinguishes an acute rotator cuff injury from a chronic one?

Chronic rotator cuff tears have symptoms that are comparable to acute tears, although acute tears are typically far more severe and start right away after just a traumatic injury. Chronic tear symptoms typically worsen over time.

An acute or chronic rotator cuff injury

Injuries to the rotator cuff are common. Acute or long-term injuries are both possible. Acute traumas, such as stretching out the arm or break a fall, can cause the rotator cuff to tear and become strained. These wounds might become better over time with rest and the right care.

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What is the purpose of random assignment in an experiment?

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In studies, random assignment is a procedure used to divide participants into different research groups with similar characteristics to ensure that the groups are equal at the start of the investigation.

Describe procedure.

A protocol is a thorough collection of instructions that anyone can follow to do a task. It contains a number of steps along with directions on how to carry out each phase. In a wide range of industries, professionals might develop procedures to help simplify processes.

Why is a procedure used?

Because stored procedures are created and once stored in executable form, they may be called quickly and effectively. Therefore, the response is prompt. The automated caching of the executable code reduces the memory requirements.

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As the malaria death rate increases, what would you expect to happen to the number of sickle-cell deaths? Explain your answer in terms of natural selection and the "heterozygote advantage

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As the malaria death rate increases, Sickle-cell deaths increase as well.

Malaria and sickle-cell mortality rates rise concurrently, owing to the fact that as heterozygotes survive and multiply, they begin to produce kids, and some of those offspring will be homozygous dominant or recessive. As a result, the mortality rate for the new offspring will rise.

When two heterozygous parents produce children, the children will not be totally heterozygous. There will still be homozygous people who are prone to anaemia or malaria.

As a result, the rise in heterozygotes owing to heterozygous advantage would increase the proportion of homozygotes, raising both the incidence of mortality from malaria and sickle-cell anaemia.

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What is the ICD-10 code for C diff diarrhea?

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The ICD-10 code for C. difficile diarrhea is A04.7, which falls under the category of Intestinal Infectious Diseases (A00-A09) in the ICD-10 coding system.

A typical issue is diarrhoea, which causes loose, watery bowel movements that may be more frequent. It could be the only symptom or coexist with others like nausea, vomiting, stomach discomfort, or weight loss. Fortunately, diarrhoea typically lasts no longer than a few days.

Diarrhoea is usually caused by a virus, or sometimes, contaminated food. Less frequently, it might be a symptom of another condition such irritable bowel syndrome or inflammatory bowel disease.

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What is the ICD-10 code for history of leukopenia?

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The ICD-10 code for history of leukopenia is Z86.72. This code falls under the category of "Personal history of other diseases and conditions" in the ICD-10.

Leukopenia is a condition in which a person's blood contains low levels of white blood cells. A variety of factors can contribute to it, including viral infections, medications, autoimmune disorders, and bone marrow disorders. If a patient has a history of leukopenia but does not currently have low levels of white blood cells, the ICD-10 code to use is Z86.72.

The code Z86.72 denotes a personal history of leukopenia, indicating that the patient has had the condition in the past but is not currently suffering from it. It is important to note that this code is only used for coding and does not represent a current medical condition or ongoing treatment.

It's also worth noting that other codes in the Z86 category can be used to indicate a personal history of other medical conditions, such as Z86.71 for a personal history of neutropenia, a type of leukopenia characterised by low levels of a specific type of white blood cell called neutrophils.

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What Is the Plural of Virus?

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The plural of "virus" is "viruses," and there are many exceptions to the general rule for making nouns plural in English.

In English, the general rule for making a noun plural is to add an "s" or "es" to the end of the word. However, there are many exceptions to this rule, including words that end in "us," like "virus." In these cases, the "us" is usually replaced with "i" to make the word plural (e.g., "cactus" becomes "cacti"). However, "virus" is an exception to this exception, and the correct plural form is "viruses."

It is important to note that some words, such as "sheep" and "fish," do not change when they are made plural. These words are called "invariant plurals" and are another exception to the general rule for making nouns plural.

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name the five violations given on your rules sheet that result in the ball being awarded to the opponents outside the sideline.

Answers

The five violations given on your rules sheet that result in the ball being awarded to the opponents outside the sideline is Out of bounds, Unsporting behavior, Dangerous tackles, Handball, & Offside.

What happens when a player commits a violation in football?

Although football is a very physically demanding sport, good sportsmanship is also expected of the players. In the NFL, breaking one of these rules carries a 15-yard penalty and, if the offense is the defense, an instant first down.

What is the 8 second violation?

This is an illustration of an eight-second infraction. Ja Morant, the offensive player with possession of the ball, does not cross the midcourt line until the allotted 8 seconds have passed.

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A nurse in the emergency department (ED) is caring for a client who reports abdominal pain. Exhibit 1 Exhibit 2 Nurses' Notes 1200: Client arrives to ED and reports abdominal pain and no bowel movement for the past 7 days. Client is undergoing chemotherapy for pancreatic cancer and has been taking 40 mg oxycodone extended-release tablets daily for the past 3 months. Client states they have attempted to relieve constipation for the last 7 days with bisacodyl suppositories and magnesium citrate oral suspension. Client reports that neither therapy initiated defecation. 1230: Client transported for abdominal x-ray. 1245: Client returned from x-ray. Provider prescribes a hypertonic cleansing enema. 1300: Procedure explained to client who verbalized understanding. Based on the client's clinical findings, which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. a. Prepare the client for NG tube placement. b. Administer oxycodone extended-release tablets. c. Perform a manual digital examination of the client's rectum. d. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds. e. Prepare the client for a chest x-ray. d. Assist the client to a left side-lying position with the right knee flexed.e. Administer a cleansing enema.

Answers

It is appropriate to help the client lie on their left side with their right knee flexed.

Before performing an enema, the nurse should have the patient lie on their left side with their right knee flexed. The nurse needs to get the patient ready for the cleansing enema because the doctor recommended it for the patient. It's appropriate to administer a cleansing enema. As per the provider's prescription, the nurse should give the client a cleansing enema. The purpose of a cleaning enema is to help with bowel movement and eliminate any impacted faecal matter that was seen on the abdominal x-ray. It is appropriate to listen for bowel sounds in the client. To assess the client's peristalsis, the nurse must auscultate that client's bowel sounds.

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Why can't I find my brachial pulse?

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If you can't find your pulse, try pushing harder into your arm.

Feel the bicep tendon in the region of the antecubital fossa to identify the brachial pulse. To find the pulse, move the pads of your three fingers medially (approximately 2 cm) from the tendon and 2-3 cm above the antecubital fossa.

On the anterior portion of the elbow, the brachial artery is palpated by gently pushing the artery against the underlying bone with the middle and index fingers. Using a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer, the brachial artery pulse is widely used to monitor blood pressure.

The use of brachial pulse palpation to determine pulselessness is the acknowledged standard for detecting cardiac arrest in newborns. CPR-certified persons had trouble identifying the brachial pulse in neonates, according to the researchers.

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which approach to understanding mental disorders is based on the belief that cognitive, interpersonal, emotional, and similar factors play an important role in the genesis of mental disorders? a. behavioral model
b. cognitive approach
c. psychological viewpoint
d. biological viewpoint

Answers

The approach to understanding mental disorders that is based on the belief that cognitive, interpersonal, emotional, and similar factors play an important role in the genesis of mental disorders is the cognitive approach (b).

What is cognitive approach?

In psychology and psychiatry, the cognitive approach focuses on how mental functions like perception, attention, memory, reasoning, and language contribute to the emergence and maintenance of mental diseases.

The cognitive method is a way of looking at mental disorders that is predicated on the idea that elements like cognitive, interpersonal, emotional, and similar factors are crucial in the development of mental disorders. The cognitive approach emphasizes the roles that a person's beliefs, attitudes, and thoughts play in the emergence and maintenance of mental health issues. In accordance with this viewpoint, mental diseases are brought on by a combination of hereditary, environmental, and cognitive variables, and people's emotional and behavioral reactions are significantly influenced by how they interpret their experiences.

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The _____ is based on the belief that both psychological processes and emotional stresses contribute to mental disorders.
a. behavioral model
b. biological viewpoint
c. cognitive approach
d. psychological viewpoint

Answers

According to the psychological point of view, mental disorders are a result of both psychological processes and emotional pressures.

Psychological viewpointAccording to this viewpoint, a person's thoughts, ideas, emotions, and actions have a big impact on how their mental health issues develop and are maintained.From a psychiatric perspective, mental disorders frequently develop from intricate interactions between a person's individual mental processes and external environmental circumstances, like stressful situations, interpersonal issues, and traumatic experiences.In order to find clear and effective that target these underlying causes, it is crucial to investigate and address the psychological and emotional components that contribute to mental diseases.

The biological perspective, which emphasizes the biological and physiological causes of mental disorders, and the behavioral approach, which highlights the role of learned behavior in the emergence and maintenance of mental disorders, are two other perspectives on mental health, in addition to the psychological one.

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Can block elements contain other block elements? Fill in the blankdrew likes aspects of working for his company from home, but one of the drawbacks is that he feels somewhat isolated from his coworkers and has formed few bonds with them. according to the ____ model, drew is more likely to leave the organization than his coworkers who have frequent communication with more emotional depth. What is another word for technique? - WordHippowww.wordhippo.com what-is techniq... wikipedia is a collaborative website where a team of people can publish or modify contet on a webpage.T/F Schemas are important top-down tools for understanding the world that affect our judgments by directing our attention, memory, and construal.Which of the following statements accurately describe how they do this? What term describes the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled at constant pressure before saturation occurs? question 7 which of the following steps are key to leading a professional online meeting? select all that apply. Bonnie is a dog lover. She walks her border collie every day, takes him to obedience classes, and buys him the newest doggie toy. Bonnie's friends are all involved in showing and breeding dogs. They only buy high-quality organic pet food and other outstanding pet products. Which of the following refers to a group of people for which an organization designs a marketing mix, in this case pet products, intended to satisfy the needs of pet owners like Bonnie? a. Target Market b. Virtual Market c. Industrial Market d. External Environment why are berg winds most frequent between April and September Name the delegates who opposed the mention of slavery in the declaration of independence? The argument list of a function call must match, or be consistent with, the parameter list of the called function in all of the following details, except: A. The names of arguments/parameters in the list. B. The number of arguments/parameters in the list. C.The types of arguments/parameters in the list. Your blood transfers ____ to other cells in your bodyA. stressB. beatsC. mucusD. nutrients Gregor Mendel performed crosses using true-breeding pea plants and observed the traits exhibited by the offspring. He crossed a yellow-seed male plant with a green-seed female plant. He then allowed the offspring (F generation) to self-fertilize, producing offspring (F generation). Based on his results, Mendel concluded that traits can be masked. What evidence best supports Mendel's conclusion? A. the green color trait was present only in the parent generationB. the green color trait appeared less pretentious in each successive generation. C. the green color trait was present in about one quarter of the population of every generation. D. the green color trait was missing from the F1 generation, but reappeared in the F2 generation. Copernicus said that the retrograde motion of the planets was caused by theA. provided only a lot of accurate dataB. make extensive observationsC. earth turning on its axisD. earth and the planets orbiting the Sun the function of business that acquires and manages funds within a firm is Pls answer correctly the virginia plan proposed a weaker executive branch than the new jersey plan. t/f Two buckets, each with a different volume of water, start leaking water at the same time, but at different rates. Assume the volumes are changing linearly. Can someone help please this so due tonight what actress debuted new york, new york before frank sinatra?