Mnemonic old carts stand for : O - Onset, L - Location, D - Duration ,C - Character , A - Aggravating or alleviating factors, R - Radiation, T - Timing & S - Severity.
The mnemonic "OLD CARTS" is a useful tool to help healthcare Providers and caregivers remember and gather important information About a patient's medical history and current symptoms.
O - Onset: When did the symptoms start and what were the Circumstances surrounding their onset?
L - Location: Where is the symptom located or felt by the patient?
D - Duration: How long has the symptom been present? Has it changed In severity or frequency?
C - Character: What is the quality or character of the symptom? Is it Sharp, dull, achy, etc.?
A - Aggravating or alleviating factors: What makes the symptom worse or better?
R - Radiation: Does the symptom radiate or spread to other areas of the body?
T - Timing: When does the symptom occur?
S - Severity: How severe is the symptom on a scale of 1-10?
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What does Endarterial mean in medical terms?
"Endarterial" is not a commonly used medical term. The correct term is "endarterialization," which refers to a surgical technique used to treat chronic limb ischemia.
During endarterialization, a small artery near the blocked or narrowed area is surgically connected to a vein, creating a new blood vessel that bypasses the blockage or narrowing. This new vessel helps to improve blood flow to the affected area and relieve symptoms of ischemia, such as pain and difficulty walking.
Overall, "endarterialization" refers to the creation of a new blood vessel to bypass a blocked or narrowed artery.
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With regard to drug treatments for patients with bulimia nervosa , which of the following statements is true? a.) Medications have not been found to be effective for the treatment of bulimia nervosab.) Antidepressants have some effectiveness in the treatment of bulimia nervosac.) Benzodiazepine medications have some effectiveness in the treatment of bulimia nervosad.) Antipsychotic medications have been found to be effective for the treatment of bulimia nervosa
The phrases that follow are accurate: Bulimia nervosa can sometimes be treated with antidepressants.
Which term, patience or patients, is correct?Since patience is a noun, you are able to exercise patience. Being the embodiment of patience is possible yet difficult. Patient is not possible. Only because it sounds somewhat like patience is the plural form of the noun patient, which refers to a person getting medical attention.
when someone is very patient?When something is painfully slow, you've been waiting for a very long time, or you're trying to teach someone something but they just don't get it, patience allows you to maintain your composure. Acceptance and tolerance are required.
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What gene helps prevent cancer?
Answer:
DNA
Explanation:
If the DNA can be repaired, p53 activates other genes to fix the damage. If the DNA cannot be repaired, this protein prevents the cell from dividing and signals it to undergo apoptosis. By stopping cells with mutated or damaged DNA from dividing, p53 helps prevent the development of tumors.
A woman, 41-weeks pregnant is at high risk for complication in the postpartum period. Which of the following agents will be more appropriate to induce labor?a. Oxytocinb. Misoprostolc. alkaloid ergotd. prostaglandin
The agent which will be more appropriate to induce labor is oxytocin, which means option A is the right answer.
Oxytocin hormone is very important in pregnancy which is released mainly during the time when baby is to be expelled out of the mother's body. It stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth and also supplements milk formation (lactation) after pregnancy for few months so as to feed the baby.
Since, the complete term of pregnancy is 40 weeks for mothers and in this case, the lady is in her 41st week, it means that the baby is ready to be taken out and hence oxytocin will ease the process and assist the mother during natural delivery.
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what is polymyxin b sulfate and trimethoprim used for
Polymyxin B sulphate and trimethoprim are frequently combined to treat bacterial infections of the eyes, such as conjunctivitis, also known as pink eye.
Pink eye, sometimes referred to as conjunctivitis, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin, transparent membrane that covers the white of the eye and lines the inside of the eyelid.
The redness and swelling of the conjunctiva, coupled with tearing, burning, itching, and discharge from the eye, are the most typical signs of conjunctivitis. The type of conjunctivitis and the underlying reason will determine whether the discharge is clear or white, thick and yellow or green, or any combination of these.
The antibiotic polymyxin B sulphate is a member of the polymyxin family. It accomplishes this by rupturing the bacterial cell membrane, resulting in leakage and ultimately, bacterial cell death. It works well against a variety of gram-negative bacteria, including Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
The bacterial enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is involved in the manufacture of folic acid in bacteria, is inhibited by the synthetic antibiotic trimethoprim. Trimethoprim interferes with the capacity of bacteria to create necessary elements required for their growth and survival by inhibiting this enzyme.
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what is teh acro medical term?
Acro medical term means tip or sharp.
Acro in medical terms means sharp, extremities of the body and tip . Medical terminology is often referred to as the words and language which is used significantly for the medical and health fields. Their proper descriptions state that medical terminology is a language that helps to describe mainly anatomical structures, procedures, conditions, and treatments in the medical terms .
Also , Medical terminology is generalized language which is used for describing the any anatomical structures, medical processes, medical conditions, medical procedures, and treatments.
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Should you accommodate the family's round-the-clock vigil in Darshan's room?
The nurse should inform the patient's relatives of their condition and the patient's family should inform the nurse of any faith requirements.
What is Cheyne- castes breathing?Cheyne-Stokes respiration is a particular type of periodic breathing that is defined by a crescendo-decrescendo pattern of breathing in between central apneas or central hypopneas (waxing and waning amplitude of flow or tidal volume).
• The patient's family should be informed by the nurse that the patient will be due in a few days.
• The nurse should be permitted to remain with the patient's family.
Therefore, the patient's family should inform the nurse of any faith requirements.
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The given question is incomplete, so the most probable complete question is,
Mgods on his bedside table. His family has been chanting at Darshan's bedside for the last 2 days ham is an older resident who is dying of prostate cancer. He is a practicing Hindu and has pictures of Rady Ae in a coma. He has not voided for the last 24 hours. He has not had a bowel movement for the Darshan and can no longer take anything in by mouth. You notice that he has now started Cheyne- castes breathing. and his lower legs are purple in color.
Should you accommodate the family's round-the-clock vigil in Darshan's room?
What is the ICD-10 code for fever?
According to the WHO, the ICD-10 code R50. 9 for Fever, Unspecified falls under the category of Symptoms, Signs, and Abnormal Clinical and Laboratory Findings, Not Elsewhere Classified.
R50 unidentified and unrelated fever. According to the WHO, the ICD-10 code Z51. 89 for Encounter for other specified aftercare falls under the category of "Factors influencing health status and interaction with health services. Record details about the fever, including the date it began, the method and location you used to measure it (rectally or orally, for instance), and any additional symptoms. Keep track of whether you or your child has been near any sick people.
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the aca established the independent payment advisory board (ipab), which makes recommendations to congress for
Answer:
Independent Payment Advisory Board is setup to reduce Private Medicare expenses.
Explanation:
Independent Payment Advisory Board was setup y United States which was created by the Affordable Care Act. It aim to reduce Medicare expenses in private settings.
IPAB would recommend policies to Congress to help Medicare provide better care at lower costs. the major realms of action was coordinating care, getting rid of waste in the system, incentivizing best practices, and prioritizing primary care.it formulate policies and submit the Congress recommendations on how to slow the growth in total private health care expenditures.
IPAB was to submit a draft proposal to the Secretary of Health and Human Services. On January 15 of the next year, IPAB was to submit a proposal to Congress.
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What is blephar/o medical term ?
The definition of blephar is "relating to the eyelids." Eyelid prolapse or drooping is referred to as blepharoptosis.
Twitching of the eyelids often goes away on its own. Yet, persons who have benign essential blepharospasm might have severe and persistent (chronic) twitching of the eyelids. Sometimes little twitches of the eyelids are often the first signs of blepharospasm.
Your eyes may totally close as a result of the twitching as it becomes more frequent over time. Daily activities like reading or driving may become challenging as a result. Moreover, some people twitch their faces twitches in other parts of the face.
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what is the icd 10 code for hypokalemia
The ICD-10 code for Hypokalemia is E87.6. Hypokalemia is a condition in which the potassium level in the blood is lower than normal.
It is often brought on by excessive potassium loss from the body as a result of perspiration, vomiting, diarrhoea, or the use of certain drugs.
Muscle weakness, exhaustion, constipation, stomach discomfort, and tingling in the limbs are all signs of hypokalemia.
It can result in major health issues like arrhythmia, paralysis, and renal failure if left untreated. In extreme situations, intravenous potassium may be required for the treatment of hypokalemia.
Therapy for hypokalemia comprises boosting K intake through food and supplements. To avoid major problems, hypokalemia must be identified and treated as soon as feasible.
Complete Question:
What is the ICD-10 code for Hypokalemia?
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What is nursing diagnosis on hypertension?
The nursing diagnosis on hypertension: Risk for ineffective health Management, Risk for impaired renal function , Risk for injury related to Falls Hypertension, or high blood pressure. For ineffective health Management:
Risk for ineffective health management: and control their blood pressure Within a healthy range.
Risk for injury related to falls: This is for patients who are at risk for falls Due to their hypertension or related medication.
Risk for impaired renal function: This nursing diagnosis may be Appropriate for patients with hypertension who are at risk for kidney Damage.
Anxiety related to hypertension: This nursing diagnosis may be Appropriate for patients who are experiencing anxiety or fear related to Their hypertension.
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azathioprine, cyclosporine, and predni sone given before receiving a kidney transplant.T/F
Azathioprine, cyclosporine, and prednisone are immunosuppressant medicines and are often given upon receiving a kidney transplant. However, all three of them are maintenance drugs, which are given after the transplant for long-term use. Therefore, the statement is FALSE.
Immunosuppressants are medicines that lower the ability to reject a transplanted organ. It is used in order to prohibit the body's immune system to attack the new organ and try to damage it.
There are two types of immunosuppressants:
Induction drugs are medicine that is used to prevent rejection at the time of transplant. Some examples are Basiliximab and Daclizumab.Maintenance drugs are medicine that is used to prevent rejection in the long term. Some examples are Azathioprine, Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus, and Prednisone.Learn more about Immunosuppressants at https://brainly.com/question/1313114
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what is osteoporotic bone marrow defect?
Osteoporotic bone marrow defect is the condition of unusual presence of hematopoietic tissue found in edentulous areas of the jaws in middle-age women.
Bone marrow is the soft tissue which has blood vessels and is generally found inside the cavity of the bones. Bone marrow supplies blood cells to the body when the different kind of blood cells mature and are released into the blood stream. These blood cells are RBC, WBC and platelets. The symptoms of osteoporotic bone marrow defect occur as asymptomatic radiolucent lesions in posterior mandible, which has higher concentration of bone marrow. In this condition, the localized low bone density is observed. It can also lead to chronic local ischemia, and also causes anemia.
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what should patients be told if an adverse event occurs
If an adverse event occurs, then we must show empathy towards the patient as well as their family.
Adverse events or AE occur frequently in any particular medical system, which results in at least one in ten patients getting affected by it. An adverse event is basically a harmful as well as negative outcome which happens when a particular patient has been provided with medical care.
Adverse events can basically occur with any medical treatment which has been provided and can possibly include medication side effects, psychological harm, injury, or trauma, or sometimes death. Adverse events can be preventable or they are unpreventable and are often they are associated with medication errors. If an adverse event occurs, then we must show empathy towards the patient as well as their family.
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the strings and elastic bands of masks and eyewear are considered ________.
The strings as well as the elastic bands of masks and eyewear are considered clean.
Universal precautions or the standard precautions basically refer to the practices in medicine which involve avoiding the contact with patients' bodily fluids and this is done by the means of wearing of nonporous articles which include medical gloves, goggles, as well as face shields.
Physical interventions can help significantly in reducing the transmission of the infections. These physical interventions include frequent handwashing that can be with or without antiseptics, using of barrier measures like gowns, gloves, and masks, and also the correct handling of scalpels, hypodermic needles, as well as aseptic techniques.
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What are the similarities and differences between heat stroke and heat exhaustion?
Heat stroke and heat exhaustion are both heat-related illnesses that can occur when the body is unable to regulate its internal temperature in response to high temperatures and/or high humidity. However, there are several key differences between the two conditions.
Similarities:Both conditions are caused by prolonged exposure to high temperatures and/or high humidity
Both conditions can cause dehydration, weakness, and confusion
Both conditions require prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications
Differences:Heat exhaustion is generally considered less severe than heat stroke, which is a medical emergency
Heat exhaustion is typically characterized by heavy sweating, pale skin, and a rapid heartbeat, while heat stroke is characterized by a high body temperature (over 104°F or 40°C), hot, dry skin, and a rapid heartbeat
Heat stroke can cause more serious complications such as organ damage, seizures, and even death if not treated promptly
Treatment for heat exhaustion generally involves rest, rehydration, and cooling measures such as moving to a cooler environment and using cold compresses or ice packs, while treatment for heat stroke may require hospitalization and more intensive cooling measures such as intravenous fluids and ice baths.
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national commission on certification of physician assistants is called?
The National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants is called (in short) NCCPA.
The National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants is a non-profit organization that provides certification programs for physician assistants. Their standard is said to be reflective of clinical knowledge, clinical reasoning, and other important medical skills and professional behaviors for a PA. This organization was first started by Dr. Eugene A. Stead, Jr in the 1960s.
Physician assistants themselves are NOT doctors, but rather are medical professionals that hold an advanced practice medical certification. Unlike doctors, they always require supervision when attending to patients.
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Explain the type of diet in the dr now diet plan
The Dr. Now diet plan is a low-calorie, low-carbohydrate diet that emphasizes healthy food choices. It is designed to help you lose weight and keep it off by reducing your calorie intake, controlling your portion sizes, and limiting processed foods.
It emphasizes fruits, vegetables, lean proteins, whole grains, and healthy fats. It also encourages regular physical activity and limits unhealthy beverages such as sugary drinks and alcohol.
The type of diet in the Dr Now diet plan is a low-calorie, high-protein diet. This diet focuses on restricting the number of calories consumed while increasing the amount of protein in the diet. The goal of this diet is to promote weight loss while maintaining muscle mass.
The Dr Now diet plan includes the following guidelines:
- Consume between 1,000 and 1,200 calories per day
- Eat 3 meals per day with 2 small snacks in between
- Include protein in each meal and snack
- Avoid processed foods and choose whole, unprocessed foods instead
- Limit the number of carbohydrates and fats in the diet
- Drink plenty of water throughout the day
By following these guidelines, the Dr Now diet plan can help individuals achieve their weight loss goals in a healthy and sustainable way.
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which abbreviation represents the words culture and sensitivity?A. C&SB. S&CC. SaCD. Scu
C&S abbreviation represents the words culture and sensitivity therefore the correct option is A.
C&S stands for Culture and perceptivity. This term is used in the medical field to describe a laboratory test that's used to determine the cause of an infection. The test involves taking a sample from the case and assaying it for the presence of bacteria, fungi, or other microorganisms. This test can help to identify the cause of the infection,
which is important for determining the stylish course of treatment. also, this test can give sapience into the case's artistic and social background, which can be helpful in furnishing further individualized care. By understanding the case's culture and perceptivity, healthcare professionals can produce a more customized treatment plan.
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What are some nursing diagnosis for schizophrenia?
Some common nursing diagnosis for schizophrenia include: disturbed sensory perception, risk for violence, impaired social Interaction, impaired verbal communication, risk for self-harm.
Schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that can affect a person's Thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
Disturbed sensory perception: This nursing diagnosis may apply to Patients who experience hallucinations, delusions, or other perceptual Disturbances.
Risk for violence: Nurses may assess patients for signs of aggression and Develop plans to prevent violent behavior.
Impaired social interaction: This nursing diagnosis may apply to patients Who are withdrawn, isolated, or have difficulty communicating.
Impaired verbal communication: This nursing diagnosis may be Appropriate for patients who have disorganized speech or are difficult to Understand.
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What is Depakote drug used for?
Answer:
To treat seizures
Explanation:
Treats complex partial seizures in adults and children 10 years of age and older. simple and complex absence seizures, with or without other seizure types
a balance of health-related attributes that allows you to perform moderate to vigorous activities on a regular basis and complete daily physical tasks without undue fatigue.
Fitness is the balance of health-related attributes that allow you to perform moderate to vigorous activity on a regular basis and complete daily physical tasks without feeling undue fatigue.
Fitness is defined as the ability to engage in moderate to vigorous physical activity without undue fatigue and to maintain that ability throughout life. Cardiopulmonary Endurance – The ability of the heart, lungs, and blood vessels to supply fuel and oxygen to tissues during prolonged periods of moderate to vigorous activity. Physical fitness includes not only the muscles of the body but also the performance of the heart and lungs. And since what your body can do affects what your mind can do, fitness has some impact on qualities such as mental alertness and emotional stability.
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Which of the following is responsible for maintaining healthy skin and hair, insulating body organs, maintaining body temperature, and promoting healthy cell function?
water
protein
carbohydrates
fat
Fat is responsible for insulating various body organs, maintenance of the body temperature, maintaining healthy skin and hair and also promoting the healthy cell function.
The correct option is option d.
Fats are a very essential macromolecule for our body. They are obtained in our diet and are a source of energy for our body which is used for maintenance and growth.
Fats play some very crucial roles in insulating various body organs, maintenance of the body temperature, maintaining healthy skin and hair and also promoting the healthy cell function. Fats are basically the most energy-dense source of calories which are present in our diet. Fats also make different foods taste better. They also happen to carry the fat-soluble vitamins which are, A, D, E, and K to the cells.
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the community/public health nurse is providing immunization teaching to a group of senior citizens. which of the following statements indicates to the nurse that more teaching is needed?
The statement that "the pneumococcal vaccine is more effective if I get it every year." should be able to indicate the nurse that more teaching is required.
The correct option is option A.
The pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for all the infants as well as children who are younger than 2 years of age and the adults who are 65 years or older. Pneumococcal vaccination is basically an important preventive health care measure which is known to be able to significantly reduce the burden of getting a pneumococcal disease .
Adults who require a pneumonia vaccine should get two shots out of which the first is the PCV13 shot and then the second one is the PPSV23 shot which is given a year or more later. For most of the people, one of each of these shots is enough to protect these people for their entire lives and this vaccine is not required to be taken every year.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"The community /public health nurse is providing immunization teaching to a group of senior citizens. Which of the following statements indicates to the nurse the need for further teaching?
A) "the pneumococcal vaccine is more effective if I get it every year."
B) "I will need to get the influenza vaccine annually."
C) "It is important that I keep my tetanus immunization updated at least every 10 years."
D) "I need to get the herpes zoster vaccine just once"."--
What is the ICD-10-CM code for arrhythmia?
The ICD-10 code I49 is used by the WHO to classify cardiac arrhythmia, undefined, as a medical illness under the subject "Diseases of the circulatory system."
An arrhythmia is a disintegrated heart rhythm. Your heart may be beating too quickly, too slowly, or irregularly, according to this sign. The term "tachycardia" refers to an unusually quick heartbeat. The medical word for an abnormally slow heartbeat is bradycardia.
The most common kind of arrhythmia, atrial fibrillation, causes an unpredictable and fast heartbeat. Stress, smoking, congenital cardiac anomalies, and heart attacks are just a few of the factors that can affect how your heart beats.
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What is the ICD-10 for Colostomy complications?
The ICD-10 for Colostomy complications will be K94.
The ICD-10 code for complications of colostomy is T85.79, which is a non-specific code for "Complications of other internal prosthetic devices, implants and grafts, not elsewhere classified."
The T85.79 code is used to indicate complications related to the colostomy procedure or the colostomy device, such as infection, bleeding, blockage, or mechanical malfunction. However, it is important to note that the specific code used may depend on the type of complication and its severity. Therefore, it is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional or medical coder for proper coding.
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A nurse is caring for a client undergoing a clonidine suppression test to identify for a pheochromocytoma. If a pheochromocytoma is present, what will the expected findings of this test be?
When you have a pheochromocytoma, the tumour produces hormones that might induce high blood pressure, headaches, sweating, and panic attack symptoms. If a pheochromocytoma is not treated, it can cause serious or life-threatening harm to other physiological systems.
Pheochromocytoma is a rare adrenal medulla tumour made up of chromaffin cells, often known as pheochromocytes. A paraganglioma is a tumour that grows outside the adrenal gland and is formed of the same cells as a pheochromocytoma. The most common signs of these neuroendocrine tumours are hypertension (high blood pressure), tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and diaphoresis (sweating).
A pheochromocytoma manifests as signs and symptoms of sympathetic nervous system activation. The typical trio consists of headaches (most likely caused by high blood pressure, or hypertension), tachycardia/elevated heart rate, and diaphoresis (excessive sweating, particularly at night, also known as hyperhidrosis).
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patient protection and affordable care act defines affordable health insurance when the cost of the insurance is below what percentage of an employee's household income
Affordable health insurance is defined under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) as a health plan that doesn't cost an employee's household income plus 8.05% more.
Based on the employee's and their family's Modified Adjusted Gross Income (MAGI), this percentage is calculated. The MAGI is the AGI plus any overseas income, nontaxable Social Security payments, and interest income that is not subject to tax.
In order to avoid penalties under the ACA, firms must offer employees access to affordable health insurance. When determining whether an employer offers reasonably priced insurance and when determining eligibility for subsidies and tax credits when acquiring coverage via the Marketplace, the 8.05% level is applied.
Employers may provide plans with rates over the 8.05% cutoff, but if an employee chooses to purchase insurance via the Marketplace, they will not be eligible for subsidies or tax credits.
Complete Question:
What percentage of an employee's household income does the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act define as affordable health insurance?
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What is the ICD-10 code for actinic keratosis?
Actinic keratosis is classified by the WHO as a disease of the skin and subcutaneous tissue and has the ICD-10 number L570.
The Tenth Revision of the International Classification of Diseases or ICD-10 was created to encourage cross-national comparability in the gathering, processing, classification, and presentation of mortality statistics. Premalignant cutaneous lesions called actinic keratoses (AKs) have the potential to develop into squamous cell carcinoma.
They manifest in persons with cumulative UV exposure on skin that has been exposed to the sun. The condition of AKs should be identified, treated, and prevented using preventative measures in order to reduce the danger of malignant transformation that comes with it.
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