According to the WHO, the ICD-10 code T81.12 for postoperative septic shock falls within the category of "injury, poisoning, and some other consequences of external sources.
A kind of acute organ dysfunction, septic shock mainly refers to circulatory collapse brought on by severe infection. Sequencing should start with the code for the systemic infection. Sepsis that develops soon after surgery is called post-operative sepsis, which is an uncommon surgical complication. Multi-organ failure and life-threatening situations are also possible in severe cases. Up to 1% of people who have undergone normal surgery will develop post-operative sepsis, which is a fairly uncommon complication.
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according to the national clas standards, health care organizations should ensure that data on a patient's race, ethnicity, and spoken and written language are handled in which of the following ways? A. Collected in health records
B. Integrated into the organization's management information systems
C. Periodically updated
D. All of the above
Collecting and integrating patient data on race, ethnicity, and language into health records and management information systems is an important part of ensuring quality all the information are correct therefore the correct option is D.
This data should be collected and stored in a secure manner and regularly streamlined to reflect any changes in the case's demographics. This will help the association to directly identify, understand, and respond to the unique requirements of each case, in addition to furnishing the necessary
data for exploration and policymaking. also, when this data is collected and maintained, it can help health care associations to identify and address difference in care and access.
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What is the meaning of 4 times a day medical abbreviation ?
q.i.d., often known as QID in medical abbreviation, stands for quater in die in Latin, which translates to 4 times each day. When a medication is to be taken every x number of hours, it is indicated by the symbol "q h," where "q" stands for "quaque" and "h" for x number of hours.
In the operating room, emergency room, and at the point of discharge, medical abbreviations are employed in every medical and surgical department.
When making prescription orders, one place where medical acronyms are frequently utilized and problematic, is in the text. The usage of acronyms has never been regulated, and there is no established standard for which acronyms can be used and which ones cannot.
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which of the following statements about microorganisms that cause human infection and disease is false?
An incorrect statement about microorganisms that cause infection and disease in humans is that microorganisms in the form of Streptococcus type B, Neisseria meningitidis, or Listeria monocytogenes bacteria are the causes of tuberculosis.
What is infection?Bacterial infection is an infectious disease caused by bacteria. This infection can cause fever, cough, and signs of inflammation, such as pain and swelling, in sufferers.
Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms that can be found in water, soil, and even in the human body. There are various types of bacteria that cause disease in humans, including Streptococcus type B, Neisseria meningitidis, or Listeria monocytogenes which cause meningitis, while Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis.
Your question is not complete, maybe what your question means is :
Which of the following statements about microorganisms that cause human infection and disease is false?
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What is the ICD-10 code for reactive airway disease?
The ICD-10 code for reactive airway disease is J68 which covers the diseases caused due to inhalation of chemicals, gases, fumes and vapours.
The ICD-10 coding system has been established by the World Health Organization in order to track the accurate medical conditions. These medical codes are used for the claiming purposes in reimbursement process.
Respiratory airway disease is the disease of the breathing airway similar to the asthma. The bronchi becomes highly reactive to irritants in this disease and therefore can becomes swollen or reactive upon encounter. The general symptoms include sneezing, coughing as well as shortness of breath.
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the blood lipid profile reveals the concentration of various lipids in the blood. a desirable level of total cholesterol is ______. monounsaturated.
Most adults want a total cholesterol level of fewer than 200 milligrammes per deciliter (mg/dL).
Based on the American Heart Association's (AHA) advice for adults over 20, this figure. The link between total cholesterol and heart disease serves as the foundation for this suggestion. The risk of having heart disease rises with increasing total cholesterol levels.
Individuals should work to lower their intake of dietary cholesterol, trans fats, and saturated fat in order to attain this ideal level. Increased consumption of soluble fibre, monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats, and carbohydrates can all aid in lowering total cholesterol.
Additionally, lowering cholesterol levels can be aided by engaging in regular physical exercise, keeping a healthy weight, and quitting smoking.
Medication could be required if lifestyle modifications are insufficient to decrease total cholesterol levels. It's crucial to go through cholesterol readings and treatment choices with a medical professional.
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Mild crowding of the permanent mandibular incisors may resolve after the age of 10 for which of the following reasons?A. The permanent mandibular incisors are only slightly larger in size than the primary mandibular incisors. Normal growth of the anterior region of the mandible provides more than adequate room for the permanent incisors by the age of 12.B. The presence of primate space distal to the mandibular canines allows space for the mandibular canines to move distally, creating more room for the mandibular incisors and alleviating mild crowding problems.C. The tongue will force the permanent incisors facially, creating adequate room to resolve any problems of crowding.D. It is not possible for even mild crowding of the permanent mandibular anterior teeth to resolve at this time because adequate growth of the anterior region of the mandible has not occurred.
On a typical day, a nurse encounters several situations involving measurement. State the name and type of measurement indicated by the units in each of the following:
a. The prothrombin time (clotting time) for blood sample in 12 s.
b. A premature baby weighs 2.0 kg.
c. An antacid tablet contains 1.0 g of calcium carbonate.
d. An infant has a temperature 39.2 ' C.
a. The measurement indicated by the unit "s" (seconds) is time.
b. The measurement indicated by the unit "kg" (kilograms) is weight or mass.
c. The measurement indicated by the unit "g" (grams) is weight or mass.
d. The measurement indicated by the unit "°C" (degrees Celsius) is temperature.
An item or event's qualities are quantified through measurement so that they may be compared to those of other things or occurrences. A method of measurement is used to determine an object's height, weight, capacity, or even quantity. We can gauge an object's length, height, or distance between two objects. For instance: Oliver is 100 inches tall, while the giraffe is 150 inches tall.
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the study of the human blood groups; in the clinical laboratory, often called blood banking or transfusion services?
The study of the human blood groups in the clinical laboratory, often called blood banking or transfusion services is known as Immunohematology.
Blood group is the system of classification of blood types based on the type of antigens and antibodies the RBC comprised of. The most common type of blood grouping system is the ABO groups, There are 4 blood types in it: A, B, AB and O.
Immunohematology is composed of studying the reactions of the antigens and antibodies present inside the blood. These antigens can be made up of proteins or carbohydrates. There are around 230 types of antigens present on the RBC surface that can generate various kinds of reactions.
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overall, the leading cause of death for americans is___
Answer:
Heart disease and cancer have claimed the first and second spots respectively as the leading causes of deaths in America. Together, the two causes are responsible for 46 percent of deaths in the United States and has been this way for over a decade.
Explanation:
I hope this helps as this is the most specific way i could write any of this
which of the following infectious diseases is increasing in incidence after being on the decline for many years?
Does histex pd drops help with cough?
The Histex PD drops help in relieving cough that may be caused due to colds, influenza, or hay fever.
Histex PD is an anti-histamine drug used to relieve the symptoms associated with allergy, hay fever, and the common cold. The drug possesses the anticholinergic properties. Apart from cough, it can also treat rash, watery eyes, itchy eyes/nose/throat/skin, etc.
Cough is the reaction generated due to irritation in the airway, more particularly the throat. The cough happens when the trigger by the irritant sends stimuli to the brain. This it is a reflex reaction by the brain. Coughing can also occur due to some underlying disease.
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The police officer states he was first on the scene and immediately started cpr. After the firefighter arrived, he applied an aed to the patient and successfully administered a shock. The patient now has a carotid pulse. 3. What are your immediate concerns regarding patient care, and what are your overall responsibilities as an emt?
The police officer states he was first on the scene and immediately started cpr. After the firefighter arrived, he applied an aed to the patient and successfully administered a shock. The patient now has a carotid pulse. The immediate concerns regarding patient care, and your overall responsibilities as an EMT is ensure that the patient is stable and monitor the patient's vital signs.
As an EMT, your immediate concerns regarding patient care are to ensure that the patient is stable, and to continue monitoring the patient's vital signs. This includes checking the patient's breathing, pulse, and blood pressure, as well as monitoring the patient for any signs of shock or other medical emergencies. Additionally, you should be prepared to administer any necessary medical interventions, such as oxygen therapy, if the patient's condition warrants it.
Your overall responsibilities as an EMT include providing emergency medical care to the patient, coordinating with other emergency responders, such as police officers and firefighters, and ensuring that the patient is transported safely to the appropriate medical facility. You should also be prepared to provide accurate and detailed documentation of the patient's condition and the care that you provided, as well as communicating with other medical professionals to ensure that the patient receives the best possible care.
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Which vessels increase peripheral resistance when they vasoconstrict in response to epinephrine and norepinephrine?A)venulesB)systemic arteriolesC)capillariesD)muscular arteries
Angiotensin I is changed into angiotensin II by the angiotensin-converting enzyme, which is located in the capillaries of the lungs. The arterioles become vasoconstrictive when angiotensin II is present.
Which of the following would raise blood vessel peripheral resistance?Peripheral resistance would increase with increased blood viscosity. Vasodilation and enlarged vessel radius would increase the area available for blood to travel in, reducing the amount of resistance to blood flow.
Does peripheral total resistance rise as a result of arteriole vasoconstriction?Arteriole constriction raises resistance, which reduces blood flow to downstream capillaries and lowers blood pressure more significantly. Arteriole dilation results in a reduction in resistance, which boosts blood flow to downstream capillaries and results in a lesser drop in blood pressure.
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What is the ICD-10 code for mild hyponatremia?
The ICD-10 code for mild hyponatremia is E87.6.
The ICD-10 code for mild hyponatremia is E87.1. This code is used to specify a diagnosis of mild hyponatremia, which is a condition in which the level of sodium in the blood is lower than normal. It is important to note that the ICD-10 code for hyponatremia may vary depending on the severity of the condition.
For example, the code for severe hyponatremia is E87.2. It is important to use the correct code in order to accurately document and treat the condition.
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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a modified left radical mastectomy with breast expander. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. " I will have to wait 2 months before additional saline can be added to my breast expander."
B. "I will preform strength building arm exercises using a 15 lb weight." C. " I will keep my left arm fixed at the elbow as much as possible."
D. " I should expect less than 25 ml of secretions per day in my drainage device."
" I should expect less than 25 ml of secretions per day in my drainage device." should be the statement that indicates an understanding of the teaching.
A radical mastectomy is a surgical surgery used to treat breast cancer that involves the removal of the breast, the chest muscle underneath, and the axillary lymph nodes. The muscles of the chest wall under the breast, the entire breast, and all lymph nodes under the arm are all removed.
A radical mastectomy is a surgical surgery used to treat breast cancer that involves the removal of the breast, the chest muscle underneath, and the axillary lymph nodes. The muscles of the chest wall under the breast, the entire breast, and all lymph nodes under the arm are all removed.
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What is the ICD-10 code for elevated glucose ?
The ICD-10 code for elevated glucose will be R73.
The ICD-10 code for elevated glucose or hyperglycemia is E11.9. This code is used to indicate an unspecified type 2 diabetes mellitus without complications when the patient has elevated glucose levels without a diagnosis of diabetes.
It is important to note that the appropriate code to use for hyperglycemia may depend on the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, it is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional or medical coder for proper code
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fill in the blank. Maria had a stroke last year. Although she can remember many things from her childhood, she is unable to remember what she ate for breakfast. It is most likely that the stroke caused damage to her _____ lobes.
Maria had a stroke last year. Although she can remember many things from her childhood, she is unable to remember what she ate for breakfast. It is most likely that the stroke caused damage to her frontal lobes.
The frontal lobe is the largest of the major lobes in mammal brains. It, as the name may suggest, is located in the front of the brain. Damage to this lobe may result in various consequences, such as:
Mini-strokes (Transient ischemic attacks).Parkinson's diseaseAlzheimer's diseaseand many moreThe common symptoms of frontal lobe damage are also various. Generally, the patient will have a hard time expressing emotion and responses. They may also show a hard time remembering recent events.
In the image below, the frontal lobe is the part colored as blue.
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What Happened to Frida Kahlo in Her Bus Accident?
Frida suffered 11 fractures in her right leg and several breaks to her pelvis, clavicle, ribs, rib cage, and spinal column as a result of a severe bus accident on September 17, 1925.
The bus that struck Frida Kahlo was attempting to pass an electric streetcar when it crashed into the tram. Kahlo suffered severe and significant injuries after being impaled by a handrail that pierced her abdomen.
She fractured her spine three times, shattered her right leg eleven times, broke three vertebrae, dislocated her shoulder, and broke her clavicle. Kahlo's survival was fortunate because the catastrophe caused numerous other passengers to perish.
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What is the ICD-10 code for Cholelithiasis with Acute cholecystitis?
According to the WHO, the illnesses of the digestive system fall within the medical categorization represented by ICD-10 code K80.00 for calculus of the gallbladder with acute cholecystitis without blockage.
The gallbladder becomes inflamed or swollen when it has acute cholecystitis. A hospital setting is typically required for treatment because it has the potential to be seriously dangerous.
The primary sign of acute cholecystitis is a sudden, severe abdominal discomfort that radiates to your right shoulder and is located on the upper right side of your belly. The discomfort caused by acute cholecystitis is typically chronic and lasts for several hours, unlike certain other types of abdominal pain.
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cognitive-behavioral therapists use all of these techniques to treat clients with obsessive-compulsive disorder except for:
Cognitive-behavioural therapists use all of these techniques to treat clients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which is Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
They believe that having intrusive thoughts means they are going crazy, but they do not equate having the thoughts with actually engaging in the behaviour.
Obsessive thoughts are distressing to people with OCD. According to biological theories of obsessive-compulsive disorder, impulses are carried to a part of the basal ganglia called the caudate nucleus, allowing the strongest impulses to flow through to the thalamus.
Cognitive-behavioural therapies are the most effective in preventing relapse in clients with panic disorder. Antidepressant drugs affecting serotonin levels help reduce symptoms of OCD.
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An electroencephalogram is used to record information about electrical activity in the what?
An electroencephalogram (EEG) is used to record electrical activity in the brain.
An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a medical procedure that is used to measure and record the electrical activity of the brain. It is often used to detect any abnormal electrical activity that may be related to neurological disorders such as epilepsy, dementia, and sleep disorders.
The EEG uses electrodes placed on the scalp to detect and measure the electrical activity of the brain. The test is non-invasive and is often used to help diagnose and monitor certain neurological conditions. An EEG is a valuable tool for medical professionals as it can provide valuable insight into the electrical activity of the brain.
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is 50 mcg of levothyroxine a high dose
Levothyroxine comes in doses ranging from 1.6 to 200 mcg, with people over 50 years old being able to start at 50 mcg is an intermediate dose
To treat an underactive thyroid gland, a drug known as levothyroxine is utilized hypothyroidism. The thyroid gland produces thyroid hormones, which help control growth and energy levels. Levothyroxine is used to replace the missing thyroid hormone thyroxine.
Levothyroxine may only be purchased with a prescription. It is available in tablet or liquid form for consumption. Levothyroxine is a synthetic version of the hormone thyroxine. When your thyroid gland is unable to produce thyroxine, it prevents the symptoms of hypothyroidism and replaces it.
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What is the ICD-10 code for chronic Anemia?
ICD-10 code D63 for Anemia in chronic diseases is classified as Diseases of the blood and blood producing organs with certain disorders involving the immune mechanism .
Also , the D63. 8 is a billable or a specific code for ICD-10 that can also be used to indicate and diagnose for reimbursement purposes. Government made 2023 edition of ICD-10-CM D63. 8 to became effective by October 1, 2022.
Chronic anemia is classified as the anemia that involves chronic disease and anemia of inflammation that forms very chronic condition. While anemia is also a result of long-term health conditions that highly affect your body's conditions of making red blood cells.
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After Jamie is startled awake in the middle of the night by a loud noise, he soon realizes that the noise he heard was the closet rod breaking from the weight of his winter coats. Once he knows that, he begins to calm down and his heart stops racing. Clearly his _____ has now been activated.
Clearly his parasympathetic nervous system has now been activated.
What is parasympathetic nervous system?The parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) is a division of the autonomic nervous system that acts to regulate the body at rest or during relaxed states. It counterbalances the effects of the sympathetic nervous system, which is activated during stress or arousal, and helps to conserve energy and maintain homeostasis in the body.
The PSNS is responsible for slowing the heart rate, decreasing blood pressure, and promoting digestive and excretory functions. It is often referred to as the "rest and digest" system, as it promotes relaxation and rest after periods of stress or activity.
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True or False: Air quality problems can generally be solved through local regulatory actions irrespective of regulations and the state of air quality in nearby cities, states, or countries.
Air quality issues can generally be resolved through local regulatory action regardless of regulations. Air quality conditions in neighboring cities, states, or countries are false statements.
Under the Clean Air Act (CAA), the EPA sets limits for certain air pollutants. This includes restrictions on airborne capacity throughout the United States. The Clean Air Act also gives the EPA authority to limit emissions of air pollutants from sources such as chemical plants, utilities, and steel mills. Air pollution is not only harmful to human health. It is also an economic drain around the world. To control this, countries create national air quality laws to reduce emissions. Regulations set health standards, including targets for specific contaminants that industry and government must meet.
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the main negative chronotropic effect on the heart is exerted by __________.
The Sino-Atrial (SA) node is the site of the Vagus nerves' (CN X) primary chronotropic influence on the heart.
Which of the following causes a reduction in heart rate and is a chronotropic agent?Acetylcholine slows the rhythm of the sinoatrial (SA) node, which has a chronotropic effect on the heart. Heart rate and cardiac output consequently drop. Follow the blood's course as it passes through the heart.
How do adverse chronotropes function?By influencing the nerves that control the heart or by altering the rhythm the sinoatrial node produces, chronotropic medicines have the potential to alter heart rate. Heart rate is accelerated by positive chronotropes but slowed by negative chronotropes. The Atrioventricular Node's (AV node) conduction is impacted by a dromotrope.
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what abbreviation of TSH medical?
Eve has been at an all-night dance and has been offered drugs that will increase her energy levels and feelings of emotional intimacy. dehydration is very likely to become a life-threatening hazard if she takes this drug, which it is
The drug it is likely Eve took was a stimulant or ecstasy which can lead to severe dehydration due to increased physical activity and decreased thirst.
The drug being offered to Eve is most likely a stimulant, such as cocaine or amphetamines or ecstasy (MDMA). These drugs increase physical activity and reduce the need for sleep, which can lead to a significant increase in body temperature and sweating.
This in turn, can result in dehydration which is a life threatening hazard if not addressed promptly. The drugs may also decrease feelings of thirst, leading to further dehydration. It is important for Eve to consider the potential risks and avoid taking the drug as her health and well being are of utmost importance.
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Which of the following is not the analytical study?
a. Cross sectional comparative study
b. Case control study
c. Cohort study
d. Prevalence study
Prevalence is not an analytical study. Therefore, option D is correct.
What is an analytical study?Analytical research is one in which a cause system will be addressed in order to enhance the interest system's performance going forward. While an analytical study concentrates on prediction, an enumerative study's goal is an estimation.
The two types of analytic research are experimental and observational. Experimental research, which includes community and clinical trials, is sometimes done to examine the effects of novel medications or vaccinations.
Prevalence is not an analytical study. Therefore, option D is correct.
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Which of the following amino acids would most likely be found on the surface of a protein?
a) Phenylalanine
b) Proline
c) Aspartic acid
d) Leucine
e) Valine
Answer:
C)
Explanation:
Aspartic acid is usually found at the surface of proteins.