gastrocnemius and soleus, are the two muscles attach distally to the calcaneal tendon.
The Calcaneal tendon or we say the Achilles tendon is the strongest and thickest tendon of the human musculoskeletal system.
The soleus muscle is located at the back of the lower leg and consist of a part of the superficial posterior compartment group, which also contains the popliteus and plantaris muscles.
The soleus muscle, is a flat muscle that lies underneath the gastrocnemius.
The connection of the achilles tendon is the it connects your calf muscles (gastrocnemius and soleus muscles) in the back of your lower leg to the heel bone in your foot.
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When older people with hearing loss must expend effort to hear words, they have a ________ capacity to comprehend them and a ________ capacity to remember them.
a. enhanced; enhanced
b. reduced; reduced
c. enhanced; reduced
d. reduced; enhanced
When older people with hearing loss must expend effort to hear words, they have a reduced capacity to comprehend them and an enhanced capacity to remember them. The correct option is option D, reduced; enhanced.
The capacity to comprehend words and sentences is affected by hearing loss. The background noise that usually accompanies communication can mask or distort speech, reducing speech recognition accuracy. The capacity of memory is not affected by hearing loss, but in this case, the capacity to remember them increases because a person has to put in more effort to hear and comprehend the words.
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about how many cycles of cpr should you perform in 2 minutes?
Answer:5
Explanation:120 heart compression
do you have to sterilize baby bottles after each use
From the ages of 7 to 30 years of age, researchers have found less diffusion and more focal activation in the ______ cortex of the brain
From the ages of 7 to 30 years of age, researchers have found less diffusion and more focal activation in the Frontal Cortex of the brain.
According to studies, the frontal cortex of the brain exhibits less diffusion and more localised activation between the ages of 7 and 30. Several crucial cognitive processes, including choice-making, planning, and problem-solving, are controlled by the frontal cortex. Researchers have discovered reduced diffusion and more localised activation in the frontal cortex of the brain between the ages of 7 and 30. The development of more effective neural connections for these complex cognitive activities may be reflected in the decrease in diffusion and rise in focused activity in this region within this age range. This discovery could also explain why, at this stage of cognitive development, some cognitive activities become simpler.
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Answer 1-2 paragraphs for brianliest
The principal's decision to purchase exergaming equipment and new body composition scales to improve the health of Fitnesstown High School is a positive step towards promoting physical activity and wellness among students.
Why is this move by the principal a positive step?The 10% improvement in the number of program participants moving into the healthy fitness zone is an encouraging result. However, this improvement may not be solely due to the implementation of the new technology, as other factors could have contributed to the result.
To further evaluate the effectiveness of the technology, the principal could conduct a more comprehensive study with a control group and a larger sample size to assess the impact of the new equipment on physical activity levels and health outcomes. Additionally, it would be helpful to track and evaluate the long-term impact of the program on students' health and wellness.
Other suggestions for the principal to use technology to further improve the overall health status of the students of Fitnesstown High could include incorporating wearable fitness trackers or fitness apps into the program to track physical activity and provide personalized feedback and incentives.
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this condition is due to an excessive production of sebum, this condition is called
Answer: acne
Explanation:
according to the definition of health literacy in your book, a person who can read and write but cannot apply health-related information is considered to have low health literacy.A. trueB. False
The given statement, "according to the definition of health literacy in your book, a person who can read and write but cannot apply health-related information is considered to have low health literacy" is A. True because health literacy is defined as the ability to read, comprehend, and apply health-related information.
Individuals with low health literacy are able to read and write but struggle to comprehend and apply health-related information. Low health literacy can lead to an increased risk of health-related complications, as individuals are unable to understand the implications of health-related information.
Health literacy is affected by a variety of factors, including education level, language barriers, and cultural background. Individuals with limited education or limited access to healthcare may struggle with understanding health-related information. Language barriers may also prevent individuals from comprehending health-related information, as many medical terms are unfamiliar and confusing.
Additionally, cultural beliefs and customs can impact individuals' ability to understand health-related information. It is important to consider health literacy when providing health-related information to individuals, as low health literacy can have a significant impact on an individual's health.
Health professionals should use simple language, provide explanations for unfamiliar terms, and ensure that individuals understand the implications of the information. By taking into account an individual's health literacy, health professionals can help ensure that individuals are able to access and understand health-related information.
Therefore, the given statement is true.
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Which level of range of motion assistance is the most assistive?
The level of range of motion assistance that is most assistive depends on the individual's specific needs and abilities. Generally, there are three levels of range of motion assistance: PROM, AAROM, AROM.
Passive Range of Motion (PROM) Assistance: This level of assistance involves an external force or a caregiver moving a joint or limb through its full range of motion without any effort from the person being assisted. PROM assistance is typically used for individuals who have limited mobility or are unable to move on their own, such as those recovering from surgery or with neurological conditions.
Active-Assistive Range of Motion (AAROM) Assistance: This level of assistance involves the person being assisted actively moving the joint or limb with some external help to complete the full range of motion. AAROM assistance is typically used for individuals who have some movement ability but may require some support to complete the full range of motion, such as those with muscle weakness or joint stiffness.
Active Range of Motion (AROM) Assistance: This level of assistance involves the person being assisted moving the joint or limb through its full range of motion on their own without any external help. AROM assistance is typically used for individuals who have full movement ability but may need some guidance or cueing to ensure they are moving through the correct range of motion.
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a client diagnosed with the common cold asks the nurse about taking an over-the-counter (otc) cold medications. what statement should the nurse include in client teaching?
The nurse should also caution the client about the potential for side effects, such as drowsiness, stomach upset, and possible interactions with other medications. It is important to be aware of the possible adverse reactions and to talk to a healthcare provider if these occur.
The nurse should advise the client diagnosed with the common cold to avoid over-the-counter (OTC) cold medications unless the healthcare provider recommends them. It is important to know that OTC cold medications can interfere with certain health conditions, such as high blood pressure and heart disease, and can interact with other medications. In addition, OTC cold medications only treat symptoms and not the underlying cause of the cold, which is a viral infection. The best treatment for the common cold is rest, plenty of fluids, and over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen for fever and body aches.
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From the list below, select all the examples that of defense that ARE NOT considered part of the hypersensitive response. Multiple answers possible. A. high levels of capsaicin in fruits and seeds inhibit the spread of fungi on pepper plants. B. A caterpillar's digestion of proteins is inhibited after feeding on the leaves of a particular plant. C. Resistance is dependent on a highly specific interaction between the gene products of both the plant and the pathogen. D. Cells near the site of infection undergo cell death to limit the spread of the infection. E. The waxy coating of the leaf epidermis prevents bacteria from entering the leaf interior.
The examples of defense that ARE NOT considered part of the hypersensitive response are: high levels of capsaicin in fruits and seeds inhibit the spread of fungi on pepper plants, and the waxy coating of the leaf epidermis prevents bacteria from entering the leaf interior.
So, the correct answer is A and E
The hypersensitive response is a plant immune response that typically follows pathogen detection. HR is recognized by cell death at the site of infection, including necrosis, and the accumulation of phytoalexins, PR proteins, and other pathogenesis-related molecules. HR is defined by its rapid onset, which typically occurs within hours of pathogen detection.
In addition, the HR is restricted to the infection site, does not move systemically, and is often followed by systemic acquired resistance. According to a plant’s genetic background, some HRs are unsuccessful and pathogens continue to proliferate unabated. Some of the examples of defense that ARE NOT considered part of the hypersensitive response include:
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Shirley wants to lose 30 pounds. When evaluating her diet, a safe amount of calories to reduce her usual intake by is approximately ______.a. 100-500 kcal per dayb. 500-1000 kcal per dayc. 1000-1500 kcal per dayd. 1500-2000 kcal per day
When evaluating her diet, a safe amount of calories to reduce her usual intake by is approximately 500-1000 kcal per.
So, the correct answer is C.
Calories are a unit of energy. It's the amount of energy it takes to raise one gram of water by one degree Celsius. Calories are most often used to express the energy content of meals and drinks. Calories are used to measure the energy content of foods and beverages. Calories are calculated by breaking down the three main macronutrients found in food: fats, proteins, and carbohydrates.
Shirley wants to lose 30 pounds in weight, and the safe amount of calories she should reduce her usual intake by is about 500-1000 kcal per day. Here are some tips for losing 30 pounds: Find a fitness program that you enjoy, such as running, swimming, or weightlifting. To stay healthy, aim to exercise at least 30 minutes every day. Reduce your calorie intake by 500-1000 calories per day.
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Three enterpretations from the data on the graph about the measures that South African businesses deemed necessary during Covid 19
Answer: Work from home, Implementing health and safety measures, and Cost-cutting measures.
Explanation:
The graph displays the measures that South African businesses deemed necessary during Covid-19. Here are three possible interpretations of the data:
Work from home: The graph shows that 57% of businesses allowed their employees to work from home during the pandemic. This suggests that businesses were willing to adapt to the changing circumstances to ensure the safety and well-being of their employees.
Implementing health and safety measures: The graph shows that 45% of businesses implemented health and safety measures such as providing personal protective equipment (PPE), sanitizing workplaces, and conducting temperature checks. This indicates that businesses were taking the pandemic seriously and were trying to prevent the spread of the virus in their workplaces.
Cost-cutting measures: The graph shows that 28% of businesses implemented cost-cutting measures such as reducing salaries, reducing work hours, and retrenching staff. This suggests that the pandemic had a significant impact on businesses, and they had to make tough decisions to stay afloat during the crisis.
what is the best intermittent fasting window to lose belly fat?
Answer: As part of a 2019 study, researchers followed 19 adults with metabolic syndrome whose meals were spread over a 14-hour window and found limiting meals to a 10-hour window (followed by 14 hours of fasting) was associated with weight loss, smaller waist circumference, lower blood pressure and LDL “bad” cholesterol.
Explanation:
True /False : An unexpectedly large number of cases of an illness, specific health-related behavior, or other health-related event in a particular population defines a pandemic.
The given statement "An unexpectedly large number of cases of an illness, specific health-related behavior, or other health-related event in a particular population defines a pandemic" is false. A pandemic is a global epidemic.
What is a pandemic?A pandemic is a sudden outbreak of a disease that affects a large number of people across the world, usually spanning more than one continent. A pandemic is a global epidemic, indicating that it has spread across countries and regions of the world. A pandemic can also cause widespread mortality and morbidity.
An unexpectedly large number of cases of an illness, specific health-related behavior, or other health-related event in a particular population does not define a pandemic. Instead, it is an outbreak. An outbreak is the occurrence of cases of a particular illness in greater numbers than expected in a particular place or population at a specific time. A pandemic, on the other hand, is an epidemic that has spread globally.
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What are some important elements for human daily intake?
Answer: The important elements for human daily intake are proteins, fats, carbohydrates, sodium chloride (NaCl), vitamins, minerals, etc.
Why is social media use bad for people’s mental health?
Social media usage enables rapid and precise dopaminergic pathway investigation.
EffectsBenefits from this, like those from drinking or using drugs, could materialize faster than those from working hard and doing well in school. Dopamine rushes from checking social media give quick satisfaction, but it takes longer for the reward system to respond to effort from difficult, time-consuming tasks. It is comparable to the practice of constant monitoring and cigarette smoking, which floods the dopaminergic pathway more quickly. The resultant rapid dopamine high can cause addiction and mental diseases like melancholy and anxiety. Self-expression on social networking sites and addiction both cause the same area of the brain to become active.For more information on social media kindly visit.
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1.04- Writing Assignment: Two Food Labels-
20 Points
Compare Two Food LabelsReview the nutrition quality of two items that are similar, using what you know about daily values, and ingredients (one of the products must have a health claim). Examples: 2 different cereals, soups, Snacky foods.Write a 300-500 word essay on what you have learned OR create a power point.
Answer:
Introduction:
Food labels provide important information about the nutritional value of the food we eat. In this essay, we will compare the nutritional quality of two food items that are similar. The two items we have chosen to compare are two different brands of breakfast cereals. One of the cereals has a health claim, while the other does not.
Nutrition Quality Comparison:
To compare the nutritional quality of the two breakfast cereals, we will focus on the following factors:
1. Serving size: Both cereals have a serving size of 30g, which is equivalent to approximately 1 cup.
2. Calories: The first cereal has 120 calories per serving, while the second cereal has 110 calories per serving.
3. Fat: The first cereal has 1.5g of fat per serving, while the second cereal has 1g of fat per serving.
4. Sodium: The first cereal has 170mg of sodium per serving, while the second cereal has 140mg of sodium per serving.
5. Carbohydrates: The first cereal has 26g of carbohydrates per serving, while the second cereal has 23g of carbohydrates per serving.
6. Fiber: The first cereal has 3g of fiber per serving, while the second cereal has 4g of fiber per serving.
7. Protein: The first cereal has 2g of protein per serving, while the second cereal has 3g of protein per serving.
Health Claim Comparison:
The first cereal has a health claim that it is a good source of vitamin D, while the second cereal does not have any health claims.
Ingredients Comparison:
To compare the ingredients of the two cereals, we will list the first five ingredients in each cereal:
Cereal 1: Whole grain wheat, sugar, rice flour, whole grain oats, corn syrup.
Cereal 2: Whole grain wheat, rice, sugar, wheat bran, whole grain oats.
Conclusion:
After comparing the two breakfast cereals, it is clear that the second cereal is a better choice for those who are looking for a healthy and nutritious breakfast option. The second cereal has fewer calories, less fat, less sodium, and more fiber and protein than the first cereal. Additionally, the second cereal contains more whole grains and fewer added sugars than the first cereal. Although the first cereal has a health claim that it is a good source of vitamin D, it is not enough to outweigh the nutritional benefits of the second cereal. Therefore, when choosing a breakfast cereal, it is important to read the food label carefully and choose a cereal that is low in sugar, high in fiber, and contains whole grains.
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List 5-7 stress management tips
Answer:
-Coloring
-Different breathing techniques
-exercise
-journaling
-stop the screen usage for a while
-simplify your schedule
-get plenty of sleep
Explanation:
Dr. Smith believes that his patient, Sarah, exhibits anxiety due to repressed anger and hostility towards her father who moved away when she was a young child. This belief is MOST in line with which theory of psychopathology?
The belief that repressed anger and hostility towards her father is causing Sarah's anxiety is most in line with the psychodynamic theory of psychopathology.
The psychodynamic theory of psychopathology proposes that unconscious conflicts, particularly those stemming from early childhood experiences, can lead to psychological disorders. In Sarah's case, Dr. Smith believes that her anxiety is caused by repressed anger and hostility towards her father, which may have originated from her early experiences of him leaving when she was a child. Therefore, Dr. Smith's belief about Sarah's anxiety is most in line with the psychodynamic theory of psychopathology.
What is psychopathology?
Psychopathology refers to the study of psychological disorders, their symptoms, causes, and treatment. It involves the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of mental health conditions, including disorders such as depression, anxiety, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and personality disorders.
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Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: A) pain and distention. B) widespread ecchymosis. C) significant hypotension. D) bruising only.
Intra-abdominal bleeding is a potentially life-threatening medical emergency that can have a number of causes. The early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding may include pain and distention, widespread ecchymosis, significant hypotension, and bruising.
Pain and distention can result from the buildup of fluid or blood in the abdomen due to the bleeding. Widespread ecchymosis is the appearance of multiple bruises that have appeared in a short time, which could indicate a more serious problem. Significant hypotension, or low blood pressure, can also indicate a significant bleeding issue. Lastly, bruising only can be a sign of internal bleeding as well.
It is important to note that these are only the early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding and that there may be more symptoms that appear as the bleeding progresses. It is also important to seek immediate medical attention if you experience any of the signs or symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding. Early diagnosis and treatment is key to preventing any further complications.
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Kelly is baby-sitting for a few kids who love to play hide and seek, but the littlest one won't look for anything that's hidden. What stage of cognitive development is that child in? What mental skill does the child lack?
The little child in question does not possess the mental skill of object permanence. The stage of cognitive development that the child is in is the Sensorimotor Stage.
Cognitive development is the development of thinking, problem-solving, and memory skills, as well as language and information processing. Cognitive development can be affected by various factors including social, environmental, cultural, and genetic. In addition, cognitive development progresses through a series of stages.
The stage of cognitive development that the child is in is the Sensorimotor Stage. During the sensorimotor stage, the child acquires object permanence, which is the realization that things continue to exist even when they are out of sight. The child has not yet grasped object permanence; therefore, they cannot locate items that are hidden.
The child lacks the mental skill of object permanence, as discussed above. Object permanence refers to the knowledge that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight. Children who have not yet acquired object permanence will assume that an object no longer exists if it is hidden or out of sight. For example, the child may believe that the person has disappeared if they close their eyes.
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In one procedure, participants were asked to judge which was a "better" even number, 4 or 18. The participants
a) offered judgments that show that well-defined categories do not show the graded-membership pattern.
b) were unable to perform this absurd task.
c) made the judgment in a fashion that implied a graded-membership pattern for the category "even number."
d) regarded all of the even numbers as being "equivalently even."
Answer: C. Participants made the judgment in a fashion that implied a graded-membership pattern for the category "even number."
Participants' evaluations of the category "even number" suggested a graded membership pattern. Even numbers are a well defined group with no intrinsic hierarchy, hence the process of determining which is a "better" even number is fundamentally nonsensical. Participants didn't appear to view even numbers as a rigid group with distinct borders, nevertheless. Instead, they displayed a graded membership pattern, in which certain even numbers are seen as "better" or more favoured than others. This shows that the category of even numbers is not well defined, but rather a graded and flexible idea impacted by personal connections and preferences.
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what is the most important result of horizontal gene transfer as it relates to human health?
The spread of antibiotic resistance in pathogenic bacteria is the most significant outcome of horizontal gene transfer as it relates to human health.
What is a horizontal gene?In order to acquire genetic material from another organism without becoming its child, a horizontal gene transfer, or HGT, must take place. The acquisition of genetic material from an ancestor, or vertical gene transfer, is in contrast. HGT happens frequently in prokaryotes and is an ubiquitous occurrence. Prokaryotes account for most documented instances of horizontal gene transfer. Transformation (uptake of free DNA), conjugation (plasmid-mediated transfer), and transduction are the three main processes that might allow horizontal gene transfer in bacteria (phage-mediated transfer).The transmission of antibiotic resistance genes among bacteria (aside from those that are passed from parent to offspring) is a result of horizontal gene transfer (HGT), which is the movement of genetic information across organisms and supports the evolution of pathogens.To learn more about horizontal gene, refer to:
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Among full-time workers, women earn 79 percent as much as men. Among people approaching retirement age (forty-five to sixty-four years) women earn ________ as much as men in the same age category. Among people age sixty-five and older (who may or may not be working), women earn ________ as much as men in the same age category
Among full-time workers, women earn 79 percent as much as men. Among people approaching retirement age (forty-five to sixty-four years) women earn 74% as much as men in the same age category. Among people age sixty-five and older (who may or may not be working), women earn 86% as much as men in the same age category.
The given statement is true that among full-time workers, women earn 79% as much as men. It is an example of the gender pay gap. It means women who work full-time earn 21% less than men. The gender pay gap for women approaching retirement age (forty-five to sixty-four years) is 74% as much as men in the same age category, and for people age sixty-five and older (who may or may not be working), women earn 86% as much as men in the same age category.
Women earn less than men due to various reasons such as career breaks, part-time jobs, lack of career advancement opportunities, and sex discrimination. However, there is a considerable pay gap between men and women. The primary reason for this gap is that women are more likely to have caregiving responsibilities, and they often work in lower-paying fields than men.
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A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client needs referral for cardiac rehabilitation?
A-I hate how I feel all the time
b- I am too tired to brush my teeth
c- I will weigh myself daily
d- I need to start eating a low- sodium diet. with rationale please
The client statement that should indicate to the nurse that the client needs referral for cardiac rehabilitation is b. "I am too tired to brush my teeth".
This statement suggests that the client is experiencing significant fatigue and may have limitations in their ability to perform activities of daily living, which are common indications for cardiac rehabilitation.
What is cardiac rehabilitation?
Cardiac rehabilitation is a medically supervised program designed to improve the physical and emotional well-being of people who have heart problems. It involves exercise, education, and counseling to help the patient recover from a heart attack, heart surgery, or other heart-related conditions. The goal is to reduce the risk of future heart problems and improve the patient's quality of life.
What is fatigue?
Fatigue is a feeling of tiredness, exhaustion, or a lack of energy that can affect a person's physical or mental functioning. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including physical exertion, illness, stress, and lack of sleep.
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Consider a hypothesis test of the claim that exercising 30 minutes a day reduces the likelihood of developing diabetes. Identify the type I and type II errors for this test. a. A type I error occurs when the difference between the sample proportion and the hypothesized proportion is statistically significant, but the test fails to detect it. A type II error is when the difference between the sample proportion and the hypothesized proportion is not statistically significant, but the test concludes that it is. b. A type 1 error is concluding that exercising 30 minutes a day has no effect on the likelihood of developing diabetes, when in reality there is enough evidence to support that conclusion. A type II error is concluding that exercising 30 minutes a day effectively reduces the likelihood of developing diabetes, when in reality there is not enough evidence to support that conclusion. The type I and type II errors cannot be determined from the given information. c. A type I error is concluding that exercising 30 minutes a day effectively reduces the likelihood of developing diabetes, when in reality there is not enough evidence to support that conclusion. A type II error is concluding that exercising 30 minutes a day has no effect on the likelihood of developing diabetes, when in reality there is enough evidence to support that conclusion d. A type I crror occurs when the difference between the sample proportion and the hypothesized proportion is not statistically significant, but the test concludes that it is. A type II error is when the difference between the sample proportion and the hypothesized proportion is statistically significant, but the test fails to detect it.
b. A type 1 error is concluding that exercising 30 minutes a day has no effect on the likelihood of developing diabetes, when in reality there is enough evidence to support that conclusion. A type II error is concluding that exercising 30 minutes a day effectively reduces the likelihood of developing diabetes, when in reality there is not enough evidence to support that conclusion.
What is diabetes?Diabetes is a chronic medical condition that affects how your body processes glucose (blood sugar), which is the main source of energy for your cells. Insulin is a hormone that helps your body to use glucose properly. When your body doesn't produce enough insulin or doesn't use it effectively, glucose builds up in your blood instead of being used for energy. This can lead to a variety of health problems.
There are two main types of diabetes: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Type 2 diabetes occurs when your body becomes resistant to insulin or doesn't produce enough insulin to maintain normal glucose levels.
There are also several risk factors that can increase your chances of developing diabetes, including:
Family history of diabetesBeing overweight or obesePhysical inactivityUnhealthy dietAge (diabetes is more common in older adults)Certain medical conditions, such as high blood pressure and high cholesterol levelsEthnicity (some ethnic groups are more prone to diabetes than others)Learn more on diabetes here https://brainly.com/question/26666469
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which document serves to inform the nurse and the public of nursing expectations in ethical matters?1. The International Code of Ethics for Nurses2. The Code of Ethics of the American Nurses Association3. The American Association of Critical Care Nurses Ethics Work Group4. Ethical Foundations for Critical Care Nursing Research
The Code of Ethics of the American Nurses Association document serves to inform the nurse and the public of nursing expectations in ethical matters.
The Code of Ethics of the American Nurses Association (ANA) is a document that outlines the ethical expectations and obligations of all nurses in the United States. It serves as a guide for ethical decision-making and practice and is intended to inform both nurses and the public about the ethical responsibilities of the nursing profession.
The Code of Ethics for Nurses includes nine provisions that address a range of ethical issues, such as the nurse's responsibility to promote health and prevent illness, maintain patient confidentiality, and collaborate with other healthcare professionals. The provisions also address issues related to social justice, including the nurse's obligation to advocate for patients' rights and to promote a culture of safety and respect in the workplace.
Hence, the correct option is 2.
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developmentalists define the preschool period as ages __________.
developmentalists define the preschool period as ages 3 to 6 years.
when discussing blood plasma, we can correctly say that ________.
Answer:
plasma contains albumins that help maintain osmotic balance
What is approximately 50% or more of the energy expended by the body each day?
The highest daily energy expenditure comes from the body's BMR (50–80 percent of your daily energy use). Thermogenesis is another name for the thermal effect of food, which is the process through which your body absorbs, transports, and stores nutrients from the food and liquids you consume.
How much BMR must I reduce my weight?Your body burns calories at its basic (basal) life-sustaining rate, which is known as your basal metabolic rate (BMR). The number of calories expended if you were in bed all day is commonly referred to as Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR).Eating your BMR will result in weight loss. Indeed, but it's not sustainable, is the quick response. Always keep in mind that your BMR only takes into account the calories your body burns while at rest, not the calories required for activities like walking, talking, exercising, etc.Hence, while eating less than your BMR isn't always bad, you should generally steer clear of any form of really low-calorie dieting.To learn more about the body's BMR, refer to:
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