What type of interview relies on a set of open-ended questions designed to assess the client's reasons for being in treatment, symptoms, health status, family background, and life history

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Answer 1

An unstructured interview is a type of interview relies on a set of open-ended questions designed to assess the client's reasons for being in treatment, symptoms, health status, family background, and life history

An unstructured interview is the most adaptable sort of interview, with a chance for spontaneity. As opposed to a structured interview, the inquiries and the request wherein they are introduced are not set. All things being equal, the interview continues in view of the member's past responses. Unstructured meetings are unconditional. There are 3 significant sorts of unstructured meetings. These are oral history, imaginative meeting, and post-current meeting.

They likewise have expanded legitimacy since it offers the questioner the chance to test for a more profound comprehension, request explanations, and permit the interviewee to guide the heading of the meeting and so on.

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Sonkoly 2008. MicroRNAs and immunity: novel players in the regulation of normal immune function and inflammation

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The discovery of microRNAs (miRNAs) is one of the major scientific breakthroughs in recent years and has revolutionized the way we look at gene regulation.

What is MicroRNAs ?

microRNA is the name of a family of molecules that helps cells control the kinds and amounts of proteins they make

That is, cells use microRNA to help control gene expression. Molecules of microRNA are found in cells and in the bloodstream.

The miRNA functions as a guide by base-pairing with target mRNA to negatively regulate its expression.

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Which diagnostic findings will the nurse expect when caring for a patient who is a experiencing worsening of asthma symptoms

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At first it could have hypoxemia with hypocapnia respiratory alcalosis then after some time the patient could even have status astamaticus with hypoxemia hipercapnia and metabolic acidosis .

An invasive imaging technique that provides color-coded images of brain activity by tracking the brain’s use of a radioactively tagged compound, such as glucose, oxygen, or a drug, is called?

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An invasive imaging technique that provides color-coded images of brain activity by tracking the brain’s use of a radioactively tagged compound is positron emission tomography.

What is positron emission tomography (PET)?

Positron emission tomography (PET) is a methodology used in clinical settings to identify a given reactive isotope.

Positron emission tomography may result very useful to observe in vivo a given physiological mechanism.

In conclusion, an invasive imaging technique that provides color-coded images of brain is positron emission tomography.

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When the nurse gives a client and family instructions after laryngeal surgery, which does the nurse indicate should be avoided

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Hand-held showers, Wearing a scarf over the stoma, Swimming, Coughing.

Stoma

A stoma is an opening on the abdomen that can be attached to either your urinary or digestive systems to allow waste (feces or urine) to be diverted out of your body. It appears as a little, round piece of flesh that is sewed to your body and is reddish in color. Wearing a pouch—which may be closed or have a bottom opening—over the top of your stoma is required. You shouldn't experience any pain because your stoma lacks nerve endings. Your need for a stoma could arise for a variety of factors. Bowel or bladder obstructions are common causes, as are bowel or bladder cancer, diverticulitis, inflammatory bowel disease, or adenovirus infections. Depending on the reason, a stoma may be transient or permanent.

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What process a simulates what a regular hardware computer can do through a software package

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Virtualization software simulates what a regular hardware can do through a software package.

what do you mean by virtualization software ?

You may run two or more operating systems on one PC by using virtualization software. Thus, it works as two or more computers in one. The others are virtual, and one is physical. examples are Citrix, which specializes on application virtualization but also offers server virtualization and virtual desktop solutions, and VMware, which specializes in server, desktop, network, and storage virtualization.

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The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with enlarged adenoids. What condition is produced by enlarged adenoids

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Noisy breathing is produced by enlarged adenoids.

The lymphoid adenoids are located in the upper airway between the back of the throat and the nose. They resemble tonsils in appearance. Adenoids that are enlarged indicate swelling tissue. The tonsils, esophagus, trachea, and epiglottis are among the components of the throat.

Snoring, mouth breathing, chronic congestion, nasal discharge, ear issues, sinusitis, and "nasal" voice quality can all be signs of an enlarged adenoid.

The rear of the mouth and on either side of the throat are home to the tiny, rounded tonsils. The adenoid is a mass of tissue that is situated above the roof of the mouth, behind the nasal cavity. Adenoids and tonsils combat infections and can expand if they do so.

A bacterial infection, such as one with the bacteria Streptococcus, may be the cause of adenoiditis. Adenovirus, rhinovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus are just a few of the viruses that might cause it.

Enlarged adenoid symptoms are:

breathing through the nose is challenging.Poor breath and chapped lips as a result of mouth breathing.having a compressed or stuffed-nose sound.recurring nasal issues.Snoring.Obstructive sleep apnea or restless sleep.middle ear infections that recur or fluid buildup in children at school

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According to the wellness recovery action plan (wrap) model, which information is included in the third part of the crisis planning step?

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According to the wellness recovery action plan (wrap) model, third step-trigger information is included in the third part of the crisis planning step.

Third step refers to triggers, where the client lists the events that cause discomfort and develops a plan to overcome these triggers.

WRAP is a wellness and recovery approach that helps people to:

1) Decrease and prevent intrusive or troubling feelings and behaviors

2) Increase personal empowerment

3) Improve quality of life

4) Achieve their own life goals and dreams.

WRAP was founded in Vermont, USA, in 1997.

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The nurse reinforces teaching to the parents of a 12-month-old who has begun weaning from breastfeeding. Which statement by the parents indicates that teaching has been effective

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I can start substituting breastfeeding sessions with whole cow's milk is the correct statement by the parents which will indicate that the teaching by the nurse has been effective.

What is Weaning?

This is the process in which a baby is moved from breastfeeding to other types of food sources such as solids. This usually takes time as a lot of patience is required due to the baby having to adapt gently to the new conditions so as to achieve the aim.

This usually occurs after six to 12 month depending on the decision by the parents in which the baby has gotten the appropriate nutrients from breast milk. In this case, cow milk can be used as a substitute in the diet of the child.

This is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

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A client has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which represents the action of the medication

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SSRIs that prevent serotonin from being reabsorbed and represent the action of the medication.

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs):

The most often prescribed antidepressants are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). They have the ability to lessen the symptoms of moderate to severe depression, are generally safe, and have fewer adverse effects. By raising serotonin levels in the brain, SSRIs alleviate depression. One of the chemical messengers, or neurotransmitters, that communicate between brain nerve cells is serotonin (neurons).

Serotonin reabsorption (reuptake) into neurons is inhibited by SSRIs. As a result, there is more serotonin accessible, which enhances neural communication. Because they primarily impact serotonin and not other neurotransmitters, SSRIs are referred to as selective. In addition to treating depression, SSRIs can also be used to treat anxiety disorders.

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During a well-child visit, the nurse would ask about which developmental milestones in a 13-month-old toddler

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Explores objects in a variety of ways, such as throwing, combining, shaking, and flinging. Recognizes well-known songs and makes an effort to participate in the singing and simple actions. Clings to your legs for support as she stands. Has favorite items and people.

Is 13 month old a toddler?

Your 13-month-old child's growthAs toddlers enter their second year, their rapid growth starts to ramp down. From now on, you can expect your little one's growth to be slow and steady — at least until your child reaches the 'tween years.

How often should a 13 month old eat?

The best schedule is usually one that includes three meals and two to three snacks, with eating opportunities spaced about two to three hours apart.

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Which clinical manifestations are appropriate when assessing a school-age child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) - Inattentive type

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Clinical manifestations for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) - Inattentive type include:

Pay less attention to details and commit thoughtless errors.Having trouble organizingProne to distractionAvoid or detest jobs that demand much consideration.

People with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) struggle with issues brought on by impulsivity, hyperactivity, and/or a short attention span. Between 2 and 4 percent of adults and between 5 and 8 percent of school-age children are diagnosed with ADHD. It is a hereditary disorder that runs in a family.

Children with ADHD frequently struggle at home, at school, or when interacting with other kids. Children with ADHD, for instance, may struggle to finish work, adhere to rules, or get along with peers.

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A 35 year old man is pulseless and apneic. He was found in a lake after falling through the ice. His wife says he left the house 3 hours ago. His is cold and rigid. What should you do

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A 35 year old man is pulseless and apneic. He was found in a lake after falling through the ice. His wife says he left the house 3 hours ago. His is cold and rigid. We will perform "Perform chest compressions."

What is chest compressions?

The act of exerting pressure to somebody's chest in an emergency circumstance to aid blood flow through heart is known as chest compression. Give five chest compressions after one mouth-to-mouth resuscitation breath.

Some key points of the chest compression are-

Less than one minutes to 65 minutes were spent compressing the chest.For all age groups, maintain compressions at a rate of one hundred compressions per minute, allowing the chest to rebound in between.However, the resuscitation infrastructure that already exists, such as portable defibrillators, chest compressions, and mouth-to-mouth ventilation, cannot be disregarded.He provided compelling evidence to show that mouth-to-mouth respiration was necessary in addition to chest compression for successful ventilation.Chest compressions are still advised even if they are deemed ineffective in people who have suffered heart attack due to trauma.The effectiveness of chest compressions can be enhanced by these devices, according to several published reviews.

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What term is used to indicate that an ambulance service entity is associated with a medical facility?

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The term is used to indicate that an ambulance service entity is associated with a medical facility is called Provider.

Emergency medical services (EMS), also known as ambulance services or paramedic services, are emergency services that provide urgent pre-hospital treatment and stabilization for serious illness and injuries and transport to definitive care.

They may also be known as a first aid squad FAST squad, emergency squad, ambulance squad, ambulance corps, life squad or by other initialisms such as EMAS or EMARS.

Ambulances are the primary vehicles for delivering EMS. These agencies may also operate a non-emergency patient transport service, and some have rescue squads to provide technical rescue services.

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The nurse is reviewing home instructions with a client who just underwent cataract surgery with intraocular lens implantation. Which of the following client statements indicate appropriate understanding of the teaching

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The client must be advised that lifting, pulling, or pushing anything heavier than 15 pounds may put pressure on the affected area of the eyes after surgery.

What is meant by cataract surgery?

Cataract surgery entails removing the clouded, opacified lens that causes blurry and perplexing vision and replacing it with an optical device (an intraocular lens, commonly known as an IOL).

Advice for the patient:

After surgery, the individual is mandated to wear sunglasses outdoors and a cap at bedtime.Post-surgery, the client must notify their physician if they develop any new symptoms, including a reaction to light or any other ailment. During the first week, avoid getting liquid, soaps, conditioner, spray, and creams in the eyes.

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What test is used to test coagulation in the blood and what complications can occur if the lab is abnormal?.

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Answer:

Glucose estimation test

hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia

Explanation:

if the Glucose concatenation is very low can cause lost of conscious

The "Prothrombin Time" (PT) test, which is frequently done alongside the "International Normalized Ratio" (INR), is used to assess blood coagulation. These tests evaluate the efficiency of the blood coagulation process. The PT/INR test is frequently used to assess how well blood-thinning medications like warfarin (Coumadin) are working as well as to identify diseases that affect blood clotting, such as liver illness, vitamin K insufficiency, or clotting disorders.

Atypical PT/INR readings can point to a number of blood clotting-related issues, including:

PT/INR levels that are too low indicate that blood clotting may be happening too easily, which raises the danger of blood clots. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism, or stroke may result from this.

Bleeding Tendency: If the PT/INR levels are excessively high, it means that the blood is clotting abnormally slowly. As a result, there may be a predisposition to bleed excessively from even little wounds. Internal hemorrhage or brain bleeding could occur in severe circumstances.

Medication management: For patients using anticoagulant drugs like warfarin, the PT/INR test is essential. A patient may be at risk of bleeding if the levels are too high, while levels that are too low may not be effective in preventing clot formation. It's critical to maintain the proper range to avoid problems with clotting and bleeding.

Abnormal PT/INR readings may be a sign of liver disease in cases of liver dysfunction. Numerous clotting components are produced by the liver, and liver disease can cause abnormalities in the blood clotting process.

Vitamin K Deficiency: Proper blood coagulation activity depends on having enough vitamin K in the body. Atypical PT/INR values can be caused by low vitamin K levels, which are frequently the result of a poor diet, malabsorption, or pharmaceutical interactions.

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A nurse in the cardiac catheterization lab implements a new procedure for achieving hemostasis of the cardiac catheter insertion site. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a new standard of care

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The characteristics that is used is predetermined which is used to distinguish the characteristics for implementing the new standard of care.

What is cardiac catheterization?

Cardiac catheterization is defined as the process or a diagnostic procedure that involves to the placement of a catheter in the heart blood vessel or chamber for an effective drainage following a surgical procedure.

Hemostasis usually occurs at the site of the cardiac insertion there research is being constantly done to minimise this effect.

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Four clients enter the pediatric emergency department at the same time. Which client should the nurse see first

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The nurse must first see what is at greatest risk of life.

Which client should the nurse assess first?

The nurse should first assess the client showing symptoms of a deep venous thrombosis (DVT) (eg, unilateral edema , warmth, redness , tenderness on palpation).

Which patients should be seen first?

In triage, a nurse typically prioritizes each patient's condition into one of three general categories:

Immediately life threateningUrgent, but not necessarily immediately life threateningLess urgent.

With this information, we can conclude that The first phase of the nursing process is the assessment phase. In this phase, the nurse collects and organizes data related to the patient. Data includes information about the patient, family, caregivers, or the patient's community or environment as it is relevant to his health and well-being.

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The motor pathway of the autonomic nervous system usually involves __________ neurons.

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The motor pathway of the autonomic nervous system usually involves two neurons.

The part of the nervous system that controls involuntary functions is called the autonomic nervous system (ANS). It is made up of autonomic neurons, which are neurons that carry impulses from the brain and/or spinal cord to glands, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle. ANS neurons are responsible for a wide variety of tasks, including the regulation of heart rate and peristalsis (the movement of smooth muscle in the digestive tract), as well as the regulation of the secretions of some glands, such as the salivary gland.

The preganglionic and the postganglionic neuron make up the connection in the ANS between the Central Nervous System and its effector. This connection is found in the autonomic nervous system. An autonomic ganglion serves as the location of the synapse that connects these two neurons, which are located outside of the CNS.

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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to an older adult client following total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching

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Maintaining hip flexion at 90 degrees or less when sitting is the appropriate instructions in which the nurse should include in the teaching to the individual who just went through total hip arthroplasty.

What is Arthroplasty?

This is a medical procedure which involves remodeling of the joint so as to restore its functions. The damaged joint is usually replaced with an artificial one in this scenario thereby ensuring certain types of movements are restored.

The individual should always maintain a hip flexion at 90 degrees or less when sitting  so as to prevent the joint from being stressed which helps maintain its functions. This should also be done to avoid the incidence of the dislocation of the joint.

This is therefore the reason why maintaining a hip flexion at 90 degrees or less is the most appropriate choice.

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The nurse is caring for a client with a continuous feeding through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care

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The nurse's intervention should include in the care plan the possible leakage of stomach (or tube) contents around the tube orifice, displacement or dysfunction of the tube. Other complications inherent to the procedure are infection of the skin around the tube, aspiration, bleeding and perforation of other viscera.

What is Percutaneous Endoscopic and Gastrostomy?

Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy (PEG) is a procedure in which a flexible feeding tube is passed into the stomach through the abdominal wall. A gastrostomy allows nutrition, fluids and medication to be placed directly into the stomach, without passing through the mouth and esophagus.

With this information, we can conclude that Endoscopic Gastrostomy is a procedure that combines endoscopy techniques to introduce a tube that passes through the wall of the abdomen and goes straight to the digestive tract.

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the nurse is teaching the mother of a toddler with celiac disease the specific foods allowed on the gluten-free diet. which is the most important information for the nurse to help the mother udnerstand

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The nurse is explaining the specific foods that fall within the gluten-free diet to the mother of a toddler who has celiac disease.

To prevent symptoms and damage to the small intestine, it is crucial for the nurse to advise the mother to feed her kid a gluten-free diet.
Gluten, a protein present in wheat, barley, and rye, causes celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue or gluten-sensitive enteropathy, which is an immunological response to consuming it. Eating gluten inflicts an immunological reaction on a person with celiac disease in their small intestine. Gluten can harm you in even little amounts. Steer clear of anything that contains wheat, rye, or barley. These grains are frequently used to make foods including crackers, bread, bagels, spaghetti, pizza, and malted breakfast cereals.

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To assess body composition and central obesity, health-care professionals most often use BMI and ________.

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To assess body composition and central obesity, health professionals often use BMI and central fat.

What is central obesity?

Also known as central obesity, fat is mainly located in the upper part of the body (visceral fat). Also known as obesity, in which fat is located mainly in

the lower bodybuttocks and thighs.

With this information, we can conclude that The human body is made up of different types of tissues. Adipose tissue, muscles, bones, blood, vital organs and all the water distributed by the body add up to the total mass or body weight that we see when stepping on the scale.

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The nurse working in the emergency department places a client in anaphylactic shock on a cardiac monitor and sees the cardiac rhythm shown. Which dysrythmia should the nurse document

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The dysrhythmia the nurse should document is the heart rate, peak airway pressure, and blood pressure.

What is anaphylactic shock?

It is the most serious form of hypersensitivity reaction (allergy), triggered by various agents such as drugs, food and radiological contrast agents. Signs and symptoms may begin within seconds of exposure to the agent or up to an hour later.

With this information, we can conclude that Anaphylactic shock occurs when a person comes into contact with a substance that excites the immune system, causing the body to overreact.

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Modern epidemiology involves history since finding the causes of chronic diseases requires looking back for _________________________.

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Modern epidemiology involves history since finding the causes of chronic diseases requires looking back for decades.

In the past, infectious diseases, which were the leading cause of death, were the primary focus of epidemiological research. This was especially true after the advent of urbanization when populations began to concentrate in cities. Better hygiene, vaccination rates, and antibiotics were able to put an end to the epidemics.

Epidemiology gradually evolved into the study of the causes, the distribution, the risk factors, and the prevention of chronic diseases, but it also expanded to include the study of diseases with a mass occurrence at the population level, such as depression, and accidents. The medical community has slowly come around to the idea that diet plays a significant role in overall health, but they continue to give it less weight than it deserves.

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Alicia is a sedentary, 20-year-old woman. She weighs 145 pounds. Based on her body weight, what is her Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein

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The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein for Alicia with a weight of 145 pounds is around 52.7 grams of protein.

The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the amount of food that a person should eat regularly to fulfill all the nutritional needs of the body. It is frequently used to help people plan diets that are sufficiently nutrient-dense.

RDA for protein is 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram (Kg) of body weight. Alicia's weight in kg will be:

145÷2.2= 65.9 kgs

RDA for protein for Alicia = 65.9 X 0.8 = 52.7 grams of protein

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The spouse of a client who was struck by lightning asks the nurse why the areas involved seems so small but the damage is extensive. Which is the best explanation from the nurse

Answers

Electrical burns usually follow an internal path.

What are the damages caused by a lightning strike on humans?

While only 10% of those who are struck by lightning die, many of the 90% who do survive have long-term difficulties.

Depending on the sort of lightning hit and the amount of electricity passing through the body, several effects might result from a lightning strike.

Lightning can destroy tissue, leave deep wounds, and result in skin burns. Additionally, the electrical current may result in a sort of scaring called Lichtenberg figures (branching electric discharges). Unusual fractal patterns emerge as a result of blood vessel destruction that occurs when the lightning current passes through the body to describe this sort of scarring.

A lightning strike can halt the heart, leading to cardiac arrest. It may also result in pulmonary edema and arrhythmias.

Brain injury and a variety of neurological disorders may be brought on by lightning strikes. A person may suffer from spinal cord injuries, go into a coma, feel pain, numbness, or weakness in their limbs, or have sleep or memory issues.

A lightning strike could harm the ear and impair hearing. Additionally, it may result in blindness, corneal damage, and vertigo.

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Drugs to treat systemic fungal infections can be toxic to the host and are not used indiscriminately. Which are factors considered before an antifungal is prescribed

Answers

Factors considered before an antifungal is prescribed to treat systemic fungal infections are:

Checking previous allergic conditions which can affect the treatment.Possible side-effects of the drug.Can antifungal medicine may interact with other medicines a patient is taking.Checking pregnancy conditions because they may affect the fetus or breastfeeding.

Systemic fungal infections are defined as invasive fungal infections which originate at a particular place in the body but have the ability to spread to other parts as well. Examples are aspergillosis and other mold infections as a result of inhalation; candidaemia as a result of infected lines or leakage from the gastrointestinal tract.

Improper medication for systemic fungal infections can lead to Infusion-related toxicity, Nephrotoxicity, including hypokalemia, liver function abnormalities, skin rash, visual disturbances, etc.

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A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which goal should the nurse incorporate into her teaching plan

Answers

Reducing one's weight through food and activity

There are various ways that exercise combats the consequences of type 2 diabetes. As a result, the cells are better equipped to utilise whatever insulin that is present to absorb glucose from the blood. Additionally, even in the absence of insulin, muscle cells can still absorb glucose when they contract during exercise.

What is Type 2 diabetes ?

A disorder in the body's ability to control and utilise sugar (glucose) as fuel is type 2 diabetes.

This chronic (long-term) disorder causes the bloodstream to circulate with an excessive amount of sugar. Over time, cardiovascular, neurological, and immune system issues might result from excessive blood sugar levels.

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Demographics and Outcomes of Hospitalized Influenza and Pneumonia Patients with Pulmonary Heart Disease and Diseases of Pulmonary Circulation: A National Inpatient Sample Analysis

Answers

Answer:

Can you be more clear with your question :

After instructing a mother about nutrition for a preschool-age child, which statement by the mother indicates correct understanding of the topic

Answers

Make sure you give your baby an iron-fortified formula to supplementany stored breast milk you have.

The nurse should not make the mother feel guilty about her decision to begin bottle feeding to supplement breastfeeding.

What statement by the mother indicates correct understanding of the topic ?

She can give it to supplement any stored breast milk she might have in supply. She should emphasize the importance of giving the baby iron-fortified formula because fetaliron stores become depleted by 4 to 6 months of age

Infants younger than 1 year of ageshould not receive regular cow’s milk because it may place a strain on the immature kidneysBecause the baby weighs 14 pounds, he will require about 21 ounces of formula a day (not 36ounces), based on the nutritional recommendations that infants require 80 to 100 mL of formula or breast milk per kilogram of body weight per day.

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