Answer:
Explanation:
You may administer 1 or 2 sprays of Nitroglycerin oral spray at the onset of chest pain. If the pain continues after 5 minutes, a third spray may be used. You must wait 5 minutes after the first 1 or 2 sprays before using a third spray.
What is the correct ICD-10 for osteopenia in the hips and spine?
Code M85. 89 (Other specified disorders of bone density and structure, multiple sites). Loss of bone mineral density (BMD) known as osteopenia weakens bones.
Those over 50, particularly women, are more likely to experience it. A noninvasive screening technique can detect bone strength even though osteoporosis has no visible signs or symptoms. You can maintain bone density and fend against osteoporosis by making some lifestyle adjustments. Osteopenia is a medical word that describes having less bone mineral density (BMD) than is typical for people of the same age. Bone mass and vigour are indicated by bone density. The most typical risk factor for osteopenia is getting older.
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Nonprescription (over-the counter) sleep medication used for treating short term insomnia resulting from a condition such as stress should be discontinued once the condition has been eliminated, ideally in ____or lessO two weeksO four weeksO three weeksO one month
Nonprescription (over-the counter) sleep medication used for treating short term insomnia resulting from a condition such as stress should be discontinued once the condition has been eliminated, ideally in two weeks or less.
Insomnia, often known as sleeplessness, is a sleep condition characterised by difficulty sleeping. They may have difficulties getting asleep or remaining asleep for as long as they would want. Insomnia is frequently accompanied by daytime tiredness, poor energy, irritability, and depression. It may raise the risk of car accidents, as well as issues focusing and learning.
The term insomnia can refer to one of two things: insomnia disorder or insomnia symptoms, and many abstracts of randomised controlled trials and systematic reviews frequently underreport on which of these two things the term insomnia refers to. Sleep onset insomnia is defined as trouble falling asleep at the start of the night, and it is frequently a sign of anxiety problems.
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a medical assistant with ________ will adhere to a code of values.
Medical Assistant Ethical Standards. Serve customers with the utmost respect for their humanity. Observe the patient's privacy.
What exactly is a medical coder?Medical coders use accepted coding systems to convert diagnoses, testing processes, and treatments from a patient's medical records into pre-designated codes. These codes assist insurance companies in calculating the amount that must be paid in accordance with the patient's healthcare plan.
What is the ethical code?A code of ethics instead lays out values, ethical tenets, and ethical benchmarks against which professionals should measure their activities. The ethical conduct of social workers should come from their own dedication to ethical practice.
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What does encephal O mean in medical terms ?
"Encephal-" is a prefix used in medical terms that refers to the brain.
For example, "encephalitis" is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain, and "encephalopathy" refers to a disease or disorder of the brain that can affect its function.
The prefix "encephal-" comes from the Greek word "enkephalos," which means "within the head." Therefore, words that begin with "encephal-" generally relate to the brain or conditions that affect the brain.
A neural tube defect called encephalocele is characterised by the brain and the membranes that protect it protruding in the shape of a bag via perforations in the skull. These flaws result from the neural tube's inability to fully close during foetal development. In the center of the skull, between the forehead and the nose, or on the backside of the skull, encephaloceles result in a groove. The location of the encephalocele affects how severe it is.
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A 70-year-old woman had an electrocardiogram taken at her local hospital, and the diagnosis was atrial fibrillation. Which of the following is likely in someone with atrial fibrillation?A. Ventricular fibrillation normally accompanies atrial fibrillationB. The rate of ventricular contraction is regular and slowC. The atrial "a" wave is normalD. The atria have a smaller volume than normalE. The P waves of the electrocardiogram are missing
The P waves of the electrocardiogram are missing is likely in someone with atrial fibrillation. Option E is correct.
Atrial fibrillation occurs when action potentials discharge in a disorderly way inside the pulmonary veins or atrium. As a result of the extremely high atrial rate, the action potentials produced are of such low amplitude that P waves are not seen on the ECG in individuals with atrial fibrillation and are absent.
Atrial fibrillation is frequently accompanied by indications of a quick heart heartbeat. Rapid and irregular heart rates can be felt as a sensation of the heart beating too fast, irregularly, or skipping beats (palpitations) or as exercise intolerance, and they can occasionally cause anginal chest pain (if the high heart rate causes the heart's demand for oxygen to exceed the supply of available oxygen).
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What is the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scale used for?
A standardized assessment tool called the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales uses semi-structured interviews to measure adaptive behavior to assist the diagnosis of developmental delays, autism, and intellectual and developmental impairments.
A popular tool for assessing adaptive behavior abilities in kids and teenagers up to age 18 is the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales. The VABS has been associated with the gross and fine motor subtests from the MSEL and PDMS-2, despite the fact that it is based on parental descriptions of behavior seen in natural circumstances.
It has three subscales: communication, socializing, and everyday life. It also provides an overall composite score. The VABS offers an indirect measure of fine and gross motor skills that is included into total play and daily living skills.
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What is the ICD-10 codes for polycythemia?
The ICD-10 code for Polycythemia is D45 which is classified under the range of neoplasms.
Polycythemia is the form of blood cancer where the bone marrow produces large quantities of red blood cells. The disease arises due to changes in the JAK2 gene which causes the excessive RBCs production. This results in highly viscous blood which becomes slow in movement.
Neoplasm is the term depicting the abnormal tissue mass which is the result of excessive and uncontrolled cell growth. Neoplasms do not necessarily define cancer because the tissue mass could be benign as well. When the mass of cells gains the property of metastasis, it becomes cancer.
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Which of the following are NOT signs of
internal bleeding?
A. Hematemesis, Hemoptysis
B. Melena, hematochezia
C. Abrasion, laceration
D. Distended, rigid abdomen after trauma
What’s the answer
Answer:
C
Explanation:
What is the nursing diagnosis for hypertension?
The nursing diagnoses for hypertension are: decreased cardiac output, decreases oxygen saturation and blood pressure equal to or greater than 130/80 mm Hg.
Hypertension is the condition of higher than normal blood pressure in the humans. This is normal when a person exercises or performs any physical activity. But higher blood pressure during the periods of rest is an alarming situation.
Blood pressure is the force that the heart applies to pump blood into the arteries and supply it to the whole body. The ideal blood pressure ranges around 120/80 mmHg. Blood pressure is composed of two forms systolic and diastolic.
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crime solving forensic expert created by patricia cornwell
The famous crime solving forensic expert created by Patricia Cornwell is named Kay Scarpetta.
Kay Scarpetta is a fictitious character based on Marcella Farinelli Fierro, MD, a former Virginia Chief Medical Examiner (retired). She is the protagonist of Patricia Cornwell's Scarpetta series of mystery novels, which are notable for their use of cutting-edge forensic science in Scarpetta's investigations.
Forensic science, often known as criminalistics, is the application of science to criminal and civil laws, primarily during criminal investigations guided by legal criteria of admissible evidence and criminal process on the criminal side.
Patricia Cornwell is a crime novelist from the United States. She is most known for her top-selling books starring medical examiner Kay Scarpetta, the first of which was inspired by a sequence of shocking killings in Richmond, Virginia, the setting for the majority of the stories.
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banting’s method of isolating insulin involved a surgical procedure to tie off ducts in the pancreas, waiting several weeks, then removing the pancreas.
In order to isolate insulin, Banting's method required tying up pancreatic ducts surgically, waiting a few weeks, and then removing the pancreas. This assertion is accurate.
How did Charles Best and Frederick Banting discover insulin?At the University of Toronto, Banting and Best conducted ground-breaking research by isolating canine insulin, inducing diabetes in animals, and administering insulin injections that resulted in normal blood glucose levels.
How was insulin isolated by Banting?Banting, Best, and Macleod started looking into ways to get insulin out of a dog's pancreas on May 17, 1921. In order to kill off other compounds in the pancreas that would degrade insulin but keep the islets intact, they tied off the pancreatic duct.
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after jamie is startled awake in the middle of the night by a loud noise, he soon realizes that the noise he heard was the closet rod breaking from the weight of his winter coats. once he knows that, he begins to calm down and his heart stops racing. clearly his____ has now been activated.a. Adrenal system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system
After Jamie is startled awake in the middle of the night by a loud noise, she soon realizes that the noise she heard was the closet rod breaking from the weight of her winter coats. Once she know that, she begins to calm down and her heart stops racing. Clearly her Parasympathetic nervous system has now been activated. Option D is correct.
The parasympathetic neural system (PSNS) is one of three divisions of the autonomic nervous system, along with the sympathetic and enteric nervous systems. The enteric nervous system is sometimes regarded a component of the autonomic nervous system and other times as a separate entity.
The autonomic nervous system regulates the body's unconscious processes. The parasympathetic nervous system is in charge of stimulating "rest-and-digest" or "feed-and-breed" actions that occur while the body is at rest, particularly after feeding, such as sexual excitement, salivation, lacrimation (tears), urine, digestion, and feces. Its action is said to be complimentary to that of the sympathetic nervous system, which is in charge of triggering behaviors related to the fight-or-flight response.
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All of the following are reasons for venipuncture except:
hematology
Serology
vaccinations
coagulation tests
Answer:
Hematology
Explanation:
fill in the blank. darnell underwent surgery to control his severe epilepsy. however, darnell cannot form new memories of his experiences now, although he does remember past events. most likely, the surgery destroyed a portion of the___in darnell's brain. amygdala striatum medulla hippocampus
In Darnell's brain, the procedure probably caused a piece of the hippocampus to die.
An essential component of the brain responsible for creating new memories is the hippocampus. It is made up of the Ammon's Horn and the dentate gyrus, two separate areas, and is situated in the medial temporal lobe.
The amygdala, thalamus, and hypothalamus are only a few of the regions of the brain that the hippocampus communicates with.
Both short-term and long-term memories are formed, consolidated, and recalled with the help of this process. Serious memory problems, such as the inability to create new memories or recall old ones, can result from hippocampal damage.
In Darnell's case, the operation probably damaged a section of his hippocampus, which prevented him from creating new memories.
Complete Question:
Darnell underwent surgery to control his severe epilepsy. Now, however, Darnell cannot form new memories of his experiences, although he does remember events in the past. Most likely, the surgery destroyed a portion of the _____ in Darnell's brain.
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What is rectal bleeding ICD code 10?
K62.5 is the ICD-10 code for rectal bleeding. This code is used to categorise and report rectal bleeding diagnoses in medical records and healthcare claims.
The 10th Revision of the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) is a standardised method for classifying medical diagnoses and treatments. Healthcare practitioners use it to categorise and record medical problems for statistical and billing purposes.
Rectal bleeding, or the flow of blood from the rectum, is coded as K62.5 in ICD-10. This code is part of the broader category of "other illnesses of the anus and rectum," which includes haemorrhoids, and rectal prolapse. Rectal bleeding, which can be caused by a range of illnesses such as haemorrhoids, inflammatory bowel disease, and rectum cancer, is explicitly addressed by the code K62.5.
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what is zofran generic name
The generic name of Zofran is Ondansetron.
Ondansetron is an anti-nausea drug commonly prescribed for migraine sufferers and used to treat moderate to severe nausea and vomiting. It is widely sold under the brand name Zofran. Ondansetron is available as tablets, rapidly disintegrating (dissolving) tablets, films, and an oral solution (liquid) for oral use. The first dose of ondansetron is usually given 30 minutes before chemotherapy, 1-2 hours before radiation therapy, or 1 hour before surgery. Side effects of Zofran (ondansetron) include headache, drowsiness, lightheadedness, and constipation. In rare cases, anti-nausea medications can cause irregular heartbeats and potentially life-threatening high levels of serotonin.
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What is the pruritus medical term?
Pruritus is the medical term for itching, a sensation that leads to a desire to scratch or rub the affected area. Pruritus can be a symptom of a wide range of skin conditions, as well as systemic diseases or medications. It can also occur without knowing any identifiable cause.
What are the symptoms of Pruritus?Pruritus can be a chronic or acute condition, and it can occur anywhere on the body. It can be mild or severe and can cause significant discomfort, sleep disturbances, and other health problems.
Treatment for pruritus depends on the underlying cause, but options may include topical or oral medications, moisturizers, avoiding triggers, and addressing any underlying medical conditions.
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Is sumatriptan a psychotropic drug?
Sumatriptan produced a dose-related decrease in euphoric scores, higher scores on measures of apathetic sedation and dislike, and was distinguished from placebo.
Nonetheless, it was not recognised as a prototypical drug of abuse. The drug sumatriptan belongs to a group of drugs known as selective serotonin receptor agonists. It functions by constricting blood arteries surrounding the brain, preventing pain signals from reaching the brain, and preventing the production of naturally occurring chemicals that produce pain, nausea, and other migraine symptoms. Narcotics are a subclass of opioid drugs. Strong painkillers like morphine and fentanyl are two examples. Sumatriptan is a triptan drug instead.
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The production by a single gene of two or more apparently unrelated effects.
ie.)Most children with cystic fibrosis have frequent lung infections and digestive difficulties. Some people have mild cases, with onset of minor respiratory problems in adulthood. Some men with cystic fibrosis only exhibit the symptom of infertility. Which exception to Mendelian laws of inheritance best explains these symptoms?
Pleiotropy is the exception to Mendelian laws of inheritance that best explains the development of two or more seemingly unrelated effects by a single gene.
Pleiotropy arises when a single gene influences several qualities. In the case of cystic fibrosis, the CFTR gene mutation that causes the disease affects several systems in the body, causing respiratory and intestinal problems. In certain situations, the same gene mutation can cause infertility, as seen in some males with cystic fibrosis.
Pleiotropy is not rare, and it is frequently seen in hereditary illnesses. Because of this occurrence, predicting the severity of an illness or the exact symptoms a person may suffer based purely on their genetic profile can be difficult.
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Patients who have Parkinson's disease usually have which of the following characteristic styles of speech? a. A garbled manner b. Loud, urgent
Patients with Parkinson's disease usually have a slow and monotonous style of speech.
Parkinson's disease is a condition that affects a person's nervous system that controls movement. This condition is a progressive disorder, which means that its symptoms start slowly and get worse as time goes on.
In this disorder, the nerve cell damage in the brain causes dopamine levels to drop. The symptoms usually start as a tremor in one hand. It is then followed by stiffness, involuntary movements, loss of balance, and slowing of movement, including slowing of the style of speech. The patient may experience difficulty speaking.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
Patients who have Parkinson's disease usually have which of the following characteristic styles of speech?
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Which of the following is a correct definition for the abbreviation NCAT?
Normocytosis antithrombolytic
Neocoaulopathy
No critical anemia treatment
Noncoagulant cytapheresis therapy
No cervical adenopathy or tenderness
No cervical adenopathy or tenderness is a correct definition for the Abbreviation NCAT.
It refers to the condition when the patient does not suffer from the Enlargement of lymph nodes. And also no tenderness is present. This Condition is abbreviated as NCAT in medical language.
Cervical lymphadenopathy refers to the swelling of lymph nodes Located in the neck. Lymph nodes, situated all over the body, are part of The lymphatic system, which works to protect the body against Microbes, maintain adequate fluid levels, absorb nutrients, and remove Certain waste products.
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What is the ICD-10 for Postprocedural urinary retention?
The ICD-10 code for Postprocedural urinary retention is N99.89.
This code is used to indicate a diagnosis of Postprocedural urinary retention, which is a condition in which an individual is unable to completely empty their bladder after a medical procedure. This can occur as a result of anaesthesia, nerve damage, or other factors.
It is important to accurately document and code this condition in order to ensure proper treatment and billing. The ICD-10 coding system is used by healthcare providers to accurately document and classify diseases, injuries, and other health conditions.
In this case, the code N99.89 is used to indicate Postprocedural urinary retention. This code falls under the category of "Other postprocedural complications and disorders of the genitourinary system," which includes a range of conditions related to the urinary system.
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What is the ICD-10 for red blood in stool?
Answer:
ICD-10 code: K62. 5 Haemorrhage of anus and rectum.
What is the meaning of suppuration?
Answer:to form or discharge pus
Explanation: grabbed straight from the dictionary
what is excessive thirst medical term?
The medical term for excessive thirst is polydipsia.
It is a condition characterized by an increased or abnormal thirst that Persists even after drinking fluids. Polydipsia can be a symptom of Various medical conditions, including diabetes, dehydration, certain Medications, and certain types of cancer.
If you are experiencing excessive thirst, it is important to consult with a Healthcare professional to determine the underlying cause and receive Appropriate treatment.
To remain, healthy doctors, advise consuming 8 glasses of water per Day. But the general guidelines are as follows;
3.7 liters of water/ fluids per day for a healthy male
2.7 liters of water/fluids per day for healthy females.
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How to use CPT CODE 99214 Correctly?
It usually takes 25 minutes to meet with the patient and/or their family. 99214 - Office or other outpatient visits to evaluate and treat established patients who require a medically appropriate history and/or examination, and an intermediate level of medical decision-making.
Office or other outpatient visits to evaluate and treat established patients who require a medically appropriate history and/or examination, and a moderate level of medical decision-making. If time is used to select the code, 30-39 minutes of the total time will be used for the date of the encounter. We currently have three decision tables. The first of these tables contains instructions such as B. 1 stable chronic problem was rated 1 point or minimal decision-making (99212), 2 stable chronic problems were rated low (99213), and 3 stable chronic problems The issue is rated as moderate (99214).
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an adolescent with terminal cancer tells the home care nuse id really like to get my general education
The best approach the nurse took to answer the teen's question was to agree to a conference call with the school and encourage the teen to prepare for exams.
Passing the high school equivalency test is something a client wants to achieve, and the nurse must do everything possible to help the client achieve that goal.
It's important to remember that teens have accomplished a lot in their lives, and trying to refocus clients on that is not therapy. Instead, nurses should encourage clients to be active and engage in their mental activities. There is no data to support the idea that clients need to deal with their feelings about their illnesses.
Your question is incomplete but most probably your full question was:
An adolescent with terminal cancer tells the home care nurse, "I'd like to get my general education development (GED) certificate. Do you think that's possible?" What is the best approach for the nurse to take in response to the adolescent's question?
1. Refocusing the conversation on things the adolescent has already accomplished in life
2. Trying to help the adolescent understand that this goal is too taxing and slightly unrealistic
3. Arranging a conference with the school and encouraging the adolescent to prepare for the test
4. Suggesting to the adolescent that this energy should be directed toward expressing feelings about the illness
The correct answer is the third choice.
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How many examination rooms must be wheelchair accessible?
There should be two examination rooms with space on opposite sides for wheelchair accessible.
The path from the waiting area to the room should be at least 900 mm wide and clear.
The entry door should open to 900mm and have a 900mm clear door width.
Within, there should be adequate space for wheelchair turning, accessible hardware, an accessible weighing scale to weigh a wheelchair, an examination table that can be lowered to 400mm to 500mm, accessible equipment, grab bars, and positioning aids, and so on. Within the room, a wheelchair turning space of 1500mm diameter is required.
A sufficient amount of open space is necessary in the room for the use of patient lift equipment and patient transfers. An space of at least 750 mmX1250 mm along at least one side of an adjustable examination table is required for this.
Whenever feasible, there should be adequate room on both sides of the examination table for simple transfer from either side that is comfortable to the patient based on his handedness or handicap. Another option is to have two examining rooms on opposing ends of the room. All controls, such as door knobs and light switches, must be reachable and operable with a closed fist.
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what is the different poas medical coding
They are used by CMS, Medicaid, and other private insurers to draw attention to the purchase of goods and services for patients that are related to medicine.
For professional billing and filing of each claim on a CMS- 1500 or equivalent, the Place of Service (POS) codes are necessary. When the patient is in a long-term nursing institution, use POS 32. Remember that ONE facility is capable of offering BOTH types of care. You need to know how the nursing facility categorises a patient as SNF or long-term in order to identify the proper POS for a specific patient. When a patient receives medical care or other associated services via telecommunications technology, they are not at home. POS 10: Patient's House for Telehealth Services.
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What is the ICD code 10 for cervical spondylosis?
According to the WHO's list,ICD-10 code: M47. 92 spondylosis, unspecified cervical region, is a medical diagnosis.
Age-related wear and tear that affects the spinal discs in your neck is known as cervical spondylosis. Osteoarthritis symptoms, such as bony protrusion along the margins of bones called bone spurs, emerge as the discs dry up and shrink. The prevalence of cervical spondylosis is high, and it gets worse with age.
Cervical spondylosis is seen in more than 85% of adults over the age of 60. Most patients with cervical spondylosis don't have any symptoms. Treatments without surgery are frequently successful when symptoms do appear. Most people don't have any symptoms, but when they do, they usually involve neck pain and stiffness.
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