Which of the following organs is considered the most effective regulator of blood carbonic acid levels? a.kidneys
B. intestines
c. lungs
d. stomach

Answers

Answer 1

The most effective regulator of blood carbonic acid levels is option C, the lungs. The lungs play a vital role in maintaining the balance of carbonic acid levels by removing excess carbon dioxide through exhalation, thus regulating blood pH.

The lungs play a crucial role in regulating blood carbonic acid levels through the process of respiration. Carbonic acid is formed when carbon dioxide (CO2) combines with water (H2O), and it can be converted back to CO2 and H2O through the action of an enzyme called carbonic anhydrase. The lungs help maintain the acid-base balance in the blood by controlling the elimination of CO2 through breathing.

When CO2 levels increase in the blood, such as during conditions like respiratory acidosis, the lungs increase the rate and depth of breathing to remove excess CO2, which reduces carbonic acid levels and helps restore the normal pH of the blood. Conversely, when CO2 levels decrease, such as during conditions like respiratory alkalosis, the lungs decrease the rate and depth of breathing to retain more CO2 and maintain appropriate carbonic acid levels.

While the kidneys also play a role in regulating blood acid-base balance, their primary responsibility is the regulation of bicarbonate (HCO3-) levels, which is an important buffer in maintaining the pH of the blood. However, when it comes to carbonic acid levels specifically, the lungs are considered the most effective regulator. The correct option is C.

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Related Questions

Chronic alcohol abuse will not only cause an individual to develop liver damage, but may also lead to cerebellar damage. Damage to the cerebellum will cause the individual to:

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Damage to the cerebellum will cause the individual to appear clumsy and uncoordinated.

What happens if the cerebellum is damaged?

The coordination of voluntary motor action, balance and equilibrium, and muscle tone are all functions of the cerebellum. It is situated toward the rear of the brain, just above the brain stem. Compared to the frontal and temporal lobes and the brain stem, it is relatively trauma-resistant.

Slow and uncoordinated motions are the outcome of cerebellar damage. When walking, people with cerebellar abnormalities frequently sway and stumble.

A cerebellar injury can cause the following symptoms:

loss of coordination of motor movement (asynergia)inability to judge distance and when to stop (dysmetria)inability to perform rapid alternating movements (adiadochokinesia)movement tremors (intention tremor)staggering, wide-based walking (ataxic gait)tendency to fallweak muscles (hypotonia)slur (nystagmus)

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What medication form does oral glucose come in

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Answer:

Oral glucose products are available as gels, tablets, and oral solutions and may come in different flavors, and are primarily used to raise blood glucose in hypoglycemic patients (diabetic patients).

An elderly client with diabetes comes to the clinic in winter reporting numbness of the feet. After removing the client's shoes and socks, the nurse notes that the feet are ice cold to the touch and appear waxy and pale. What is the appropriate nursing action

Answers

Appropriate nursing action for diabetic feet is to Wash the client's lower legs in a warm water bath.

Throughout the body, damaged nerves can result from high blood sugar (glucose). The nerves in the legs and feet are most frequently damaged by diabetic neuropathy. Diabetic neuropathy symptoms can range from numbness to discomfort in the hands, feet, and legs, depending on which nerves are impacted.Diabetes and peripheral neuropathy are conditions that cause nerve damage. It causes numbness, loss of feeling, and occasionally discomfort in your hands, legs, or feet. It is the most frequent side effect of diabetes.Every day, wash your feet in warm water—not hot water. Don't let your feet soak. Apply moisturizer to the top and bottom of your dry feet, but avoid the space between your toes as this could cause an infection. Avoid walking barefoot.

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The nurse is aware that the newborn's circulatory dynamics during transition can be positively affected by which action

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Early clamping(30-40seconds) of the umbilical cord changes circulatory dynamics during transition and is affected positively while late clamping affects it negatively.

What is Umbilical cord?

This refers to a cord which connects the baby to the mother's placenta and helps to supply nutrients and other vital substances such as oxygen to the fetus. This ensures the fetus grows and develops under the right type of environment.  It is usually clamped after birth and falls off after a while when healing is completed.

Early clamping of the cord will ensure that  systemic vascular resistance is increased while on the other hand, late clamping will lead to low cardiac output and the baby will be at risk of asphyxic insult.

This is therefore the reason why early clamping is recommended and will affect the circulatory dynamics positively.

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After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience:

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After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience: flulike symptoms.

Black widow spiders usually  found in Mexico, the southern United States, and Canada. They reside in low-lying webs near swimming pools, in wood piles, garages, grills, and barbecues. Between April and October, the majority of bites happen in suburban and rural locations. When their webs are tampered with, these spiders often bite. Bites to infants and young children can be more dangerous than bites to adults.

After being bitten by a black widow spider, one may have painful swelling around the bite.   Additionally, individuals can get stomachaches, cramps, and muscle spasms. These symptoms may worsen, up to 12 hours after you have been bitten. It may take a few days or weeks before all the discomfort goes away.

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A patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent. Which response by the nurse is the best

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A patient has inquiries about a recent antitussive agent. The best response by the nurse is that it will reduce the frequency of your cough

Antitussives, commonly referred to as cough suppressants, are medications that reduce coughing. Although the precise mechanism of action is uncertain, antitussives are assumed to function by blocking the cough reflex arc in the brain stem's coordinating region.

The best medicine to try if you have a dry cough is one that contains an antitussive, like dextromethorphan or pholcodine. The best medicine to try if you have a chesty cough is one that contains an expectorant, like guaifenesin or ipecacuanha. taking this medication orally, with or without a meal, as recommended by your physician, typically every four hours

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When a nurse commits a crime outside of the workplace, the BON's concern relates to whether the nurse may

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When a nurse commits a crime outside of the workplace, the BON's concern relates to whether the nurse may perform the same act in the workplace.

Who is a Nurse?

This is referred to as healthcare professionals who are specialized in taking care of the sick and injured ones.

The concern is whether the nurses will act in such manner if in the workplace so as to ascertain ability to  provide safe care to patients.

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The health professional with the greatest responsibility for nutrition care of clients in a hospital setting is the

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Clinical dieticians are the health care professionals having the greatest responsibility for the nutrition care of clients in the setting of a hospital.

Nutrition is an important factor for a person to live a healthy and happy life. For good health taking proper nutrition is beneficial as it provides growth, development, and proper functioning to the mind and body. In a hospital to manage the proper nutrition of a client, a proper diet chart is recommended to prevent the client from any disease, in severe cases nutrition therapy is also given by the clinical dieticians. They provide the nutrition therapy according to the client's medical conditions and nutrition requirements.

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When an applicant for a nursing license receives a final conviction for first degree murder, the NPA mandates that the applicant

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When an applicant for a nursing license receives a final conviction for first degree murder, the NPA mandates that the applicant will not be eligible to apply for an initial nursing license until five years after being released from community supervision or parole.

A nurse practice act (NPA) was passed into law by all states and territories, and it creates a board of nursing (BON) with the power to create administrative rules or regulations to specify or explain the law. Rules and regulations must adhere to the NPA and are not permitted to stray from it. The NPA was created to control the profession and safeguard the populace from practitioners who pose a threat to the welfare, safety, and health of those living under its state board's purview. Conduct that gives rise to suspicions that a nurse's ability to practice is hampered by chemical dependency or drug or alcohol addiction is classified as NPA.

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Which of the following amendments have been selectively incorporated to the states using the Fourteenth Amendment

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The portions of the bill of right has been selectively incorporated to the states using the fourteenth amendment.

What is Bill of right?

These comprises of the first ten amendments to the U.S constitution and comprises of essential rights and liberties.

They were incorporated using the fourteenth amendment in 1868 thereby making it the most appropriate choice.

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A group of occupational-related lung diseases characterized by inflammation, infection, and bronchitis, caused by inhaling substances in the workplace is called __________________.

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A group of occupational-related lung diseases characterized by inflammation, infection, and bronchitis, caused by inhaling substances in the workplace is called Occupational asthma.

Occupational asthma:

A specific form of asthma called occupational asthma is brought on by inhaled irritant exposure during work. Since occupational asthma frequently has a reversible course, avoiding the triggers may cause the symptoms to go away.

Inhaling compounds referred to as triggers might cause asthma symptoms in people with sensitive airways. Several industrial chemicals can cause asthma symptoms, which can result in occupational asthma. The most frequent triggers include chemicals, fungi, animal dander, wood dust, grain dust, or grain dust.

Symptoms of occupational asthma include wheezing, shortness of breath, runny nose, nasal congestion, eye discomfort, and tightness in the chest. When exposed to the irritant(s) at work, these symptoms may develop worse.

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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself athome during the last 2 months of pregnancy. This of the following statements by the client indicates anunderstanding of the teaching

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I will alternate the arm I use to check my blood pressure.

Preeclampsia:

During pregnancy, preeclampsia, a dangerous blood pressure problem, can appear. Preeclampsia patients frequently have hypertension (high blood pressure) and excessive urine protein levels (proteinuria). Usually beginning after the 20th week of pregnancy.

Pre-eclampsia is assumed to develop when there is a problem with the placenta, the organ that connects the baby's blood supply to the mother's. However, the exact etiology of pre-eclampsia is unknown.

Preeclampsia signs and symptoms, in addition to elevated blood pressure, may include:

More protein in the urine (proteinuria) or other kidney-related symptoms.Decreased blood platelet levels (thrombocytopenia)Hepatic issues are indicated by elevated liver enzyme levels.A terrible headache.

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In recent years, the role of ______, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.

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In recent years, the role of epidemiology, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.

What is epidemiology?

Epidemiology can simply be defined as the branch of medicine which deals with the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health.

So therefore, in recent years, the role of epidemiology, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.

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Choose MyPlate reminds Americans about maintaining balanced diets by using an illustration that features ______.

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MyPlate reminds Americans about maintaining balanced diets by using an illustration that features the 5 food groups.

What is MyPlate?MyPlate is a nutritional food guide, developed by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), to help Americans become more aware of what they eat and to assist them in making better food choices.MyPlate uses the place setting, which includes a plate and a glass, to illustrate how the five food groups should be distributed over the daily meals so individuals can get the proper daily intakes of nutrition.MyPlate is a transitional tool from the previous dietary guidelines and is designed to help people learn how to eat a healthy diet, live an active lifestyle, and maintain or gradually move in the direction of a healthy weight, which will reduce the risk of weight-related diseases.

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Babies that are at a low birth weight are more likely to have health problems, while women will have difficulty delivering babies with high birth weight. Together this leads to ______ for babies of average birth weight.

Answers

Answer: ————— = Stabilizing selection

Explanation:

The nurse is assessing a newborn who appears healthy and at term. Which assessment finding of the feet does the nurse predict to observe to confirm the status of at-term birth

Answers

Creases on two-thirds of the foot will confirm the status of at-term birth.

What is the significance of the foot in a new-born?

The inspection of a newborn must include a thorough check of the feet. The newborn foot, which has between 26 and 28 bones, is complicated despite its relatively small size. Numerous malformations can be seen when both feet are simultaneously observed.

It is important to look closely at the skin for any unique folds or wrinkles that could result from different foot deviations. On one side of the foot, the skin may be abnormally loose and excessively skinfold, while other portions of the skin may be abnormally stiff, indicating additional tension on the skin.

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What is the usual number of posterior film sensor images taken in the parallel technique?

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Posterior film sensor images using the parallel technique for maxillary posterior films the film is placed because it will be placed in the mouth on the surface of one being radiographed ,opposite side of the surface.

If it is placed on the cotton wool before the film is placed for upper teeth and then film is placed for lower teeth.There are some purpose for using this technique that is  increased distance between the radiation sources and film to obtain a bundle of parallel rays.

It is 16 inches long receptor distance which is used with the paralleling technique. This is used to position an intraoral receptor in the mouth and maintain the receptor in position during exposure.

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Regular exercise has been associated with improved stress management, which is attributed to its effect on

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Regular exercise has been associated with improved stress management, which is attributed to its effect on cortisol release and is usually produced by the adrenal glands which are found on top of the kidneys.

What is Exercise?

This is described as a physical activity which involves the movement of parts of the body and is responsible for the general fitness of individuals. This helps to build the muscles and improve the circulation of blood and nutrients around parts of the body.

When exercises are done, the adrenal glands are stimulated which leads to the release of cortisol and is referred to as a stress reliever.

It is also involved in the control of the body's general metabolism rate which is why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

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Which of the following list in the correct order the events of acute inflammation after tissue injury

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Erythema, edema, heat, pain, altered function  list in the correct order the events of acute inflammation after tissue injury.

What is acute inflammation after tissue injury?

Inflammation refers to the initial physiological response to tissue damage, such as that caused by mechanical, thermal, electrical, irradiation, chemical, or infection.

An inflammation or an inflammatory reaction is one of the body's many intricate biological reactions. Chemical mediators and cellular responses work together to combat any infection or harm to the body's cells. Acute and chronic are the two categories.

At the location of an injury or infection, acute inflammation is a type of localized, transient inflammation. Following tissue damage, acute inflammation starts within seconds to minutes. It is distinguished by four essential characteristics (Latin phrases in brackets) Secondary to vasodilation and increased blood flow is redness (rubor). Heat (color) is a localized rise in temperature that is also brought on by a rise in blood flow.

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which method of anesthesia is likley to be used for a 45-year-old alcohol-intoxicatted man closed reduction and cast application of a fractured forearm

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The axillary block method of anesthesia is likely to be used for a 45-year-old alcohol-intoxicated man with closed reduction and cast application of a fractured forearm.

An axillary block is a term used for the axillary brachial plexus block. The terminal branches of the brachial plexus are rendered unconscious by the axillary block, a peripheral nerve block that is done in the axilla. Surgery on the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers uses axillary blocks for anesthetic and/or analgesia.

The ventral rami of the upper thoracic and lower cervical nerve roots combine to produce the brachial plexus. The brachial plexus nerves pass via the neck, collarbone, and arm before entering the arm.

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According to the national comorbidity survey replication (ncs-r), what percentage of u.s. residents experience a diagnosable mental disorder at some time in their life?

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About 19.5% of the adult population of US residents experience a diagnosable mental disorder at some time in their life.

What is mental disorder?

The term mental disorder has to do with a situation in which there is a slight problem with the cognitive processes of an individual. This does not mean that the individual is mad rather, it means that the individual requires diagnosis and treatment.

According to the  national comorbidity survey replication (ncs-r), 19.5% of the adult population of US residents experience a diagnosable mental disorder at some time in their life.

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a client with midsternal pain presents to the emergency department. vital signs are stable. which form of nitroglycerin

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Spray

Nitroglycerin, nurse anticipate to give, is spray.

What are nitroglycerines?

Nitrates are a class of drugs that includes nitroglycerin. It functions by widening the blood arteries, boosting the flow of blood and oxygen to the heart, and lightening the workload on the organ.

People with coronary artery disease who experience angina (chest pain) episodes can be treated with nitroglycerin spray (narrowing of the blood vessels that supply blood to the heart). The spray may also be applied right before engaging in activities that could result in angina episodes in order to stop the angina from happening. The drug nitroglycerin belongs to the vasodilators class of drugs. By allowing the blood arteries to relax, it makes the heart work less hard and so consumes less oxygen.

I understand the question you are looking for is this:

A client with midsternal pain presents to the emergency department. Vital signs are stable. Which form of nitroglycerin does the nurse anticipate giving initially?

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Under general anesthesia, a provider excises one chalazion from each upper eyelid. What cptâ® and icd-10-cm codes are reported?

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Although chalazion surgery is not regarded as serious surgery, anaesthetic is used throughout the procedure. You might have a local anaesthetic that only affects the region around your eyes or a general anaesthetic that puts you to sleep for the surgery, depending on your health requirements, age, and medical history.

Whether a single or several chalazia are removed under these circumstances,  the codeCPT 67808 is utilised for excisions requiring general anaesthesia and/or hospitalisation. Similarly for icd-10-cm codes are as follows-

For chalazion right upper eyelid ICD-10-CM Code H00.11

For chalazion, left upper eyelid, ICD-10-CM code H00.14

Aftercare is involved post surgery, antibiotics are prescribed. Steroid ointment  is given in some cases

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Rapid assessment of mrs. bailey’s breathing reveals irregular, gasping breaths. you correctly identify this pattern of breathing as?

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You correctly identify this breathing pattern on agonal, Breathing patterns consist of tidal volume and respiratory rate in an individual. An average breathing pattern is 12 breaths per minute and 500 mL per breath. Eupnea is normal breathing at rest. There are types of altered breathing patterns that are symptoms of many diseases.

What is breathing pattern?

The normal adult, at rest, breathes comfortably 12 to 18 times per minute. Newborns, this value reaches 30 to 40 breaths per minute, that is, almost double that of an adult at rest and children can reach 25 to 30 breaths per minute.

With this information, we can conclude that Breathing rate is the number of breaths you take per minute.

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The PACER Test measures cardiovascular fitness. The PACER Test measures cardiovascular fitness. True False

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The PACER test measures cardiovascular fitness is a true statement.

In 1982, Leger and Lambert developed a multistage shuttle run they called the Progressive Aerobic Cardiovascular Endurance Run (PACER). The PACER was created to assess aerobic capacity, which can be described as having endurance, performance, and fitness. The PACER's goal is to maintain a certain speed for as long as possible.

This test may be performed simultaneously to huge numbers of children for very little expense. In contrast to many other tests of endurance capacity, the test continues until maximal effort is reached.

The level of practice and motivation might affect the final score, and scoring can be subjective. Since the test is typically performed outside, the environment can have an impact on the outcomes.

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What fitness rating indicates that you have the level of fitness needed to live a full, healthy life

Answers

Answer:

Between 20 and 25

Explanation:

Your BMI is the percentage of fat in your body in relation to the lean muscle mass and is one of the best indicators of fitness levels in healthy individuals. If your BMI falls between 20 and 25, then you are healthy with appropriate fat and muscle mass.

The nurse is preparing to teach a client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about home management of the disease. Which action should the nurse take first

Answers

The patient's interest in and capacity for managing their diabetes on their own should be evaluated by the nurse before lesson planning. The other nursing interventions may be necessary after examining the patient, but planning must be tailored to each patient.

What is nursing process?Assessment: The nursing procedure begins with the assessment phase. At this point, the nurse compiles and arranges patient-related information.Diagnosis: This is one of the most important steps in the nursing process. It is necessary to consider all of the patient's external circumstances while making a diagnosis, which can occasionally be challenging (environmental, socioeconomic, physiological, etc.).Planning: The third step in the nursing process is planning. It offers direction for nursing interventions.Implementation: The actions a nurse takes to implement their patient care plan, such as any treatments, procedures, or learning opportunities aimed to improve the patient's comfort and health, are known as nursing interventions.Evaluation: The nursing procedure ends with the evaluation phase. It takes place after the interventions to see if the goals were met. During the evaluation phase, the nurse will choose how to evaluate the effectiveness of the goals and interventions.

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Which of the following techniques should you use when you are communicating with a patient who has autism? Exaggerate your lip movements. Speak normally and provide simple, one-step directions. Speak loudly into the patient’s ear. You and your partner should talk to the patient together

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According to the research, the correct option is Speak normally and provide simple, one-step directions. It is a technique that you should use when you are communicating with a patient who has autism.

What is autism?

It encompasses a series of disorders that affect the communication skills, socialization and empathy of the person who usually presents the congenital impossibility to establish communication or develop an emotional bond with others.

Speak normally and provide simple, one-step directions, reduces lack of contact with the environment, promoting language and social interaction with a patient who has autism and also being a highly structured environment.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is Speak normally is a technique that you should use when you are communicating with a patient who has autism.

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A client is admitted for a right below-knee amputation (BKA) as a result of poorly managed diabetes mellitus. Which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery

Answers

The client is at risk of developing surgical site infection post the right below-knee amputation (BKA) as a result of poorly managed diabetes mellitus.

Diabetes is a type of disease that leads to a rise in blood glucose levels. Amputation in the lower extremity of the body is extremely common in an individual with unregulated diabetes. This is because diabetes may result in diabetic neuropathy or peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Narrowing of the arteries in the PAD causes the development of ulcers and infections in the lower limbs, which ultimately causes amputation. Diabetes mellitus reduces the wound healing power and therefore delays the surgical site to recovery. This makes the client prone to surgical site infections.

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The word part that completes the medical term for inflammation of the mucous membrane that lines the inner surfaces of the eyelids, ___________/itis, is:

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The medical term for inflammation of the mucous membrane that lines the inner surfaces of the eyelids is conjunctivitis.

An inflammation or infection of the clear membrane (conjunctiva), which borders your eyelid and covers the white portion of your eyeball, causes pink eye (conjunctivitis). The conjunctiva's tiny blood vessels become more apparent when they are irritated. Your eyes' whites seem reddish or pink because of this.

Note: The question seems incomplete, the complete question can be "The word part that completes the medical term for inflammation of the mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelids, _______/itis is:

a. corne

b. conjunctiv

c. irid

d. scler"

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The word part that completes the medical term for inflammation of the mucous membrane that lines the inner surfaces of the eyelids, ___________/itis, is Conjunctiv.

The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelids is called the conjunctiva. The anterior surface of the eyeball is also ensheathed by the conjunctiva. Infection of the conjunctiva is extremely common and is called conjunctivitis or pink eye. The common symptoms are redness and irritation of the eye. This infection is extremely contagious. Transmission occurs by eye discharges of an infected individual. The treatment involves antihistamine drops in case of allergy or antibacterial drops in case of bacterial infections.

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