Who led a hunt for communists in the United States in the 1950s?

Responses

FBI Director J. Edgar Hoover

FBI Director J. Edgar Hoover

Senator Joseph McCarthy

Senator Joseph McCarthy

Congressman Richard Nixon

Congressman Richard Nixon

research scientist Julius Rosenberg

Answers

Answer 1

Senator Joseph McCarthy was the person who led a hunt for communists in the United States in the 1950s. Thus the correct option is D.

Who was Senator Joseph McCarthy?

Joseph Raymond McCarthy was an American politician who served as a Republican U.S. Senator from the state of Wisconsin from 1947 until his death.

In the time of a politically charged atmosphere where there were fears of Communists as it affects all American institutions and they spread easily.

On February 9, 1950,  Joseph McCarthy, who was a Republican Senator from Wisconsin, did state that he had in his hand, a list of 205 State Department employees who were said to be Communists. This led to a hunt for communists in the United States in the 1950s.

Therefore the correct option for the question is option D.

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Answer 2

Answer: Senator Joseph McCarthy

Explanation: Hope this helps :)


Related Questions

why might individuals interested in starting in a family consider seeking genetic testing?

Answers

Answer:

Individuals may seek genetic testing before starting a family to determine their carrier status for certain heritable diseases, like cystic fibrosis.

Explanation:

What is the ICD-10 for hydronephrosis?

Answers

According to the WHO, the ICD-10 classification N13. 30 for Undefined hydronephrosis falls within the category of diseases of the bladder and kidneys.

What causes hydronephrosis most frequently?

A obstruction in the bladder and kidneys or anything interfering with how the urinary tract normally functions are the typical causes of hydronephrosis. The kidneys, the bladder, the ureters (tubes that connect the kidney to the bladder), and the urethra make up the digestive system 

Is it possible to treat hydronephrosis non-surgically?

In order to treat or avoid a urinary tract infection, they can also recommend an antibiotic. The root cause of hydronephrosis in adults occasionally resolves by itself. A person won't require any medical attention, therefore. Yet, in most cases, surgery is required to remove the blockage or correct the reflux.

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How can you give help to someone that is struggling with an issue in their lifeWay does P
each letter stand for?)
study wait C-onnect.

Answers

The person is struggling with an issue in their life and is given a useful tool called PEACH, where P stands for empathy, E is for active listening, A is for asking questions, C is for creating a self-paced activity, and H is for helping to find the solution.

What is the significance of struggling with life?

Many people struggle with their lives on a daily basis, and there are numerous challenges that must be overcome, such as the financial crisis, while others have mental or physical issues.

Hence, the person is struggling with an issue in their life and is given a useful tool called PEACH, where P stands for empathy, E is for active listening, A is for asking questions, C is for creating a self-paced activity, and H is for helping to find the solution.

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does white chocolate have caffeine

Answers

No, white chocolate does not naturally contain caffeine unless it is added during production. A naturally occurring substance called caffeine can be found in the cocoa beans used to produce chocolate.

The ingredients used to make white chocolate include cocoa butter, sugar, milk solids, and vanilla. It is a sweet and creamy dessert. Instead of having the distinct flavour and colour of conventional chocolate due to the presence of cocoa solids, it has a light, buttery flavour. White chocolate can be melted and added to recipes for a decadent, rich flavour. It is frequently used in desserts, candies, and baked goods. White chocolate is a flavour that some people adore while others find to be overly sweet or uncomplicated. It's also crucial to keep in mind that some white chocolate products could have extra sugars or fats, which could affect how nutritious they are.

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What Should be Included in a Doctor Excuse Note?

Answers

The following details ought to be on a doctor's excuse letter, often known as a medical certificate or sick note: When was the visit, Patient details, Diagnosis, Treatment, Estimated time for recovery.

A doctor's excuse note excuse, also known as a medical certificate or a sick note, confirms a patient's medical status and offers a justification for absence from work, school, or other obligations. It is a legal document that must contain particular information, including the patient's name, date of visit, diagnosis, course of treatment, anticipated time of recovery, and the name and signature of the treating physician. Patients should give the note as soon as possible to the appropriate authorities, and it should be accurate and truthful. A doctor's note of excuse can assist avoid miscommunications and guarantee that patients get the time off they require to recuperate from their medical condition.

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Explain how flavonoids may have potential for killing cancer cells.

Answers

Flavonoids have been found to have a wide range of anticancer actions, modulating activity of enzymes that scavenge reactive oxygen species, inducing apoptosis and autophagy, invasiveness of cancer cells.

What function do flavonoids serve?

Flavonoids have a variety of health advantages, such as antiviral, anticancer, antioxidant, and anti-inflammatory effects. Moreover, they have cardio-protective and neuroprotective properties. The kind of flavonoid, its (potential) method of action, or its bioavailability all affect these biological functions.

Antioxidants' role in the battle against cancer

Antioxidants are chemicals that prevent oxidation and function as defence mechanisms. Free radicals, byproducts of the body's regular chemical reactions, can harm the body, but they shield it from these consequences. Healthy cells are attacked by free radicals, which alters their DNA and promotes the growth of malignancies.

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what is the medical term?

Answers

The medical term for eczema is atopic dermatitis.

Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that causes dry, itchy, and red skin. It is a type of allergic reaction that occurs when the immune system overreacts to a substance that is harmless to most people, such as pet dander, pollen, or dust mites.

Atopic dermatitis is often characterized by periods of flare-ups, where symptoms become more severe, followed by periods of remission, where symptoms improve or disappear. The condition can affect people of all ages, but it is most common in infants and young children.

The exact cause of atopic dermatitis is not known, but it is believed to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Treatment typically involves a combination of measures to prevent or reduce flare-ups, such as avoiding triggers, using moisturizers, and taking medications to relieve symptoms.

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Who was the first person to describe reflex action?

Answers

Answer:

René Descartes

Explanation:

physical interventions to interrupt or reduce the spread of respiratory viruses is called___

Answers

Physical interventions to interrupt or reduce the spread of respiratory viruses is called Infection control

A series of actions known as infection control are intended to stop the spread of infectious pathogens. This involves using hand washing, personal protection equipment (PPE), cleaning and disinfecting the surroundings, and other precautions.

The most crucial and reliable technique to stop the transmission of infections is through good hand cleanliness. It entails routinely washing your hands with soap and water as well as sanitising them with an alcohol-based product.

When people are in close proximity to an infected person or are at high risk of contracting an illness, PPE should be worn to safeguard healthcare personnel and other people.

To stop the transmission of infectious organisms, environmental sanitation is also crucial.This entails routinely using detergent and water to clean surfaces, followed by a disinfectant.

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What is the ICD-10 code for Type 2 diabetes mellitus without complication?

Answers

ICD-10 uses "E" codes for illnesses and disorders, while "11" denotes a condition's relationship to endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic problems. The number "9" after the decimal point denotes that there is

The collection of chemical reactions that take place within living things to sustain life is known as metabolism. It entails converting food components like proteins, lipids, and carbs into the energy and other vital chemicals required for development, repair, and reproduction. There are several regulatory pathways and enzymes involved in the breakdown and synthesis of molecules in these intricate and interrelated processes. Many variables, including age, sex, genetics, nutrition, exercise, and hormones, can affect the rate of metabolism. When one of these metabolic pathways is disrupted, excessive amounts of glucose, lipids, and other chemicals can develop in the blood, which can result in metabolic illnesses including diabetes and the metabolic syndrome. Maintaining general health and avoiding sickness requires an

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What are the basic clinical areas and functions of a hospital?

Answers

Hospital is a center, where patients are treated and overseen by a group of doctors. Patient Support provides several services that are all directly tied to patient care, including nursing, nutritional diagnostics, counselling, medicine, and medical supplies.

An organised local hospital that provides outpatient diagnostics, rehabilitative, or prophylactic services is called a clinic. The word frequently refers to a whole medical now include, which includes the hospital and any outpatient clinics. A hospital might or might not be affiliated with the medical care that a clinic provides. The word "clinic" can be used to describe any Patients in just this department are observed by nurses and doctors in a healthcare setting, who check on patients as frequently as required by hospital regulation. Long-term patient stays are possible in this department, and protocol.

Patients could stay in this division for a long period of time and it varies depending on the extent of the patient's disease. • Patients are watched by the nurses and doctors in a medical environment and check sufferers conditions as regularly according to the hospital procedure.

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What are terry cloth mitts routinely used over milady?

Answers

Terry cloth mitts are defined as those used regularly over paraffin and a cover as they hold in the heat provided by the warm paraffin to encourage product conditioning of the feet or hands.

What are Towel mitts?

A washing mitt is defined as a piece of terry cloth shaped like a pouch into which the hand fits and is used as a type of washcloth to aid in washing the body, for example , to apply soap to the body, and with a damp washing mitt to remove the soap.

It can also be used to brighten the face, these are often used to protect from intermittent heat contact and oil absorption with unique loop-out material.

Thus, Terry cloth mitts are defined as those used regularly over paraffin and a cover as they hold in the heat provided by the warm paraffin to encourage product conditioning of the feet or hands.

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A person addicted to heroin went through the following treatment to stop his drug abuse: a doctor gradually replaced his daily heroin dosage with the legal drug methadone.

What kind of treatment is this?
A.
detoxification
B.
supervised medication
C.
therapeutic community

Answers

A person addicted to heroin went through the following treatment to stop his drug abuse: a doctor gradually replaced his daily heroin dosage with the legal drug methadone therefore the kind of treatment is supervised medication which is denoted as option B.

What is a Medication?

This is also referred to as a drug and it is used to diagnose, cure, treat, or prevent disease.

Methadone is a medication used in medication-assisted treatment (MAT) to help people reduce or quit their use of heroin or other opiates which is why option B was chosen as the correct choice.

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Answer:

the answer is B supervised medication

Explanation:

i got it right on the test

Skin is exposed to friction and has a protective function. What type of epithelial tissue is best suited to form the outer layer of the skin?

Answers

Squamous epithelium is stratified and makes up the epidermis, the topmost layer of skin.

What is epithelial tissue?

A type of tissue called epithelial tissue lines internal organs, creates glands, and covers the exterior of the body. Tight junctions, which hold the tightly packed cells together and stop substances from moving between the cells, make up this structure.

The toughness of this type of epithelial tissue makes it perfect for developing the skin's outer layer since it acts as a barrier against friction and other external stimuli. The stratum corneum, the epidermis' outermost layer, is regularly shed and replaced as well, which enables the skin to regenerate and continue its protective function. In conclusion, stratified squamous epithelium is well suited to create the skin's outer layer because of its durability, capacity to act as a barrier of defense, and ability to continuously renew.

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what is the composition of blood

Answers

Blood is a particular kind of biological fluid. Its four constituent elements are platelets, red blood cells, white blood cells, and plasma.

Mixture of around 45 percent blood cells and 55 percent plasma, is the blood that flows through the veins, arteries, and capillaries. Your blood makes up around 7–8% of your entire body weight. A guy of average height has around 12 pints of blood in his body, whereas a lady of similar height has about 9 pints.

Main functions of blood include carrying nutrients and oxygen to the lungs and tissues, forming blood clots to stop excessive blood loss, carrying immune system cells and antibodies, bringing waste products to the kidneys and liver, filtering and temperature regulation.

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A serving of a breakfast cereal contains 3 g of protein, 18 g of carbohydrates, and 6 g of fat. What is the calorie content of a serving of this cereal if the average number of calories for fat is 9. 1 calories/g, for carbohydrates is 4. 1 calories/g, and for protein is 4. 1 calories/g?.

Answers

The calorie content of a serving of this cereal is 140.7 cal, if the average number of calories for fat is 9. 1 calories/g, for carbohydrates is 4. 1 calories/g, and for protein is 4. 1 calories/g.

We need to multiply the number of calories per the amount of each nutrient.

Proteins - 3 g and 4.1 cal/g ∴ 3 x 4.1 = 12.3 cal

Carbohydrates- 18 g and 4.1 cal/g i.e., 18 x 4.1 = 73.8 cal

Fats - 6 g and 9.1 cal/g i.e., 6 x 9.1 = 54.6 cal

There are 54.6 calories from the fat in the cereal

After adding the amounts we get,

Total calorie content equals,

Total calorie = 12.3 + 73.8 + 54.6 = 140.7 cal

So there are 140.7 calories in that bowl of breakfast cereal.

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Chris believed that he did well on his exam because he was lucky. Which psychological concept applies to Chris's explanation?
A. positive psychology
B. humanistic psychology
C. internal locus of control
D. external locus of control
E. self-serving bias

Answers

The Correct Answer for this would be : E

What is the ICD 10 code for renal insufficiency?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for renal insufficiency is N18.9. This code falls under the category of "Chronic kidney disease, unspecified".

It is used to indicate chronic kidney disease of unspecified severity, including chronic renal insufficiency. It is important to note that there are several types and stages of chronic kidney disease, and the appropriate ICD-10 code used for diagnosis may vary depending on the specific type and stage of renal insufficiency. Therefore, it is important to consult with a healthcare provider to accurately diagnose and assign the appropriate ICD-10 code.

N18.9 is an ICD-10 code that falls under the category of "Chronic kidney disease, unspecified." This code is used to indicate a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) of unspecified severity. Chronic kidney disease is a condition in which the kidneys gradually lose function over time, and can eventually lead to kidney failure.

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The parable of the good Samaritan in Luke 10 teacher the following except:
a. Our neighbor is whomever God brings across our path.
b. How to care for injured people.
c. How to love our neighbor.
d. Love requires sacrifice.

Answers

With the exception of teaching how to treat injured people, Luke 10's parable of the  good Samaritan teaches the following

We are neighbors with anyone that God places in our path. A lawyer asks Jesus in the parable, "Who is my neighbor?" The Good Samaritan Parable provides the clarification that anybody in need is our neighbor, irrespective of their color, religion, or social standing.How to care for the injured: The Good Samaritan comes to the injured man's aid, tends to his wounds, brings him to an inn, and pays for his care. The Good Samaritan exemplifies love for his neighbor by being sympathetic and helpful, even to a complete stranger who is in need.Love demands giving up: The Good Samaritan goes above and above to assist the hurt man, investing his time and resources to do so.

In conclusion, the Good Samaritan tale tells us about loving our neighbor, which necessitates giving up something in order to care for people in need, irrespective of who they are.

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a nurse decides on a teaching plan for a new mother and her infant. what should the plan include?

Answers

When a nurse decides on a teaching plan for a new mother and her infant The plan should cover the following topics:

1. Breastfeeding technique and positioning: The nurse should teach the new mother how to properly latch and feed her infant, as well as the various positions she can hold the infant in while breastfeeding.

2. Infant safety and injury prevention: The nurse should teach the new mother how to keep her infant safe and how to avoid common injuries.

3. Newborn care: The nurse should instruct the new mother on bathing, diapering, cord care, and any other newborn care that is required.

4. Nutrition and healthy eating habits: The nurse should discuss the importance of a balanced diet for both the mother and the infant, as well as offer advice on how to make healthy food choices.

5. Developmental milestones: The nurse should discuss the various developmental milestones that the infant will encounter during the first year, as well as the importance of encouraging the infant's development.

6. Infant sleep patterns: The nurse should discuss infant sleep patterns and strategies for encouraging healthy sleep habits.

7. Common infant illnesses: The nurse should inform the mother about common infant illnesses, their symptoms, and the appropriate treatment.

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what is the different between gender and sex

Answers

Answer: Sex is usually categorized as female or male but there is variation in the biological attributes that comprise sex and how those attributes are expressed. Gender refers to the socially constructed roles, behaviors, expressions, and identities of girls, women, boys, men, and gender-diverse people.

Explanation:

Direct Recovery Associates, Inc. is ?

Answers

Direct Recovery Associates, Inc. is a variety of industries, including healthcare, retail, financial services, and telecommunications.

DRA works with clients to recover outstanding debts through a range of services, including skip tracing, account management, and legal action. The company employs a team of trained debt recovery specialists who are skilled in negotiating with debtors to secure payment or establish payment plans.

In addition to its debt collection services, DRA also offers customized solutions to help clients prevent future delinquencies and improve their overall cash flow. These solutions may include credit reporting, risk assessment, and accounts receivable management.

DRA is licensed and bonded in all 50 U.S. states, and is compliant with federal and state regulations governing the debt collection industry. The company is committed to ethical and professional debt collection practices, and strives to maintain positive relationships with both clients and debtors throughout the recovery process.

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A nursing is preparing to administer lbuprofen to a post-partum client. What assessments should the nurse complete prior to administering this medication?

Answers

The nurse must first assess if the client has some allergy to ibuprofen, some bleeding issue or hypertension related health conditions.

Ibuprofen is NSAID drug which means it is Non-Steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drug. It is given mainly as analgesic to relive the patient from body pain which occurs due to surgery and also reduce swelling. In case it is given to the patient, the nurse must identify if there is some peptic ulcer in the stomach because it may worsen the situation.

Similarly the condition of hypertension or some allergic side effects must also be asked from the patient or by seeing their health history. It can also cause bleeding in some cases and may have negative impact on the Lactation of the mother which will also harm the child.

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What is the average reaction time for a 14 year old?

Answers

The average reaction time for a 14-year-old is about 200-250 milliseconds. However, reaction time can vary depending on various factors such as age, gender, physical fitness, and neurological health.

Reaction time is the time taken by a person to respond to a stimulus, such as a visual or auditory signal. It is an important measure of cognitive and physical ability and can be affected by a range of factors, including fatigue, distraction, and alcohol or drug use. Regular practice and training can help improve reaction time, and there are various tests and exercises available to measure and enhance it.

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What nursing assessment findings support the diagnosis of pneumonia?

Answers

There are various nursing assessment findings that might support a pneumonia diagnosis. Such examples are: Respiratory Symptoms, Fever, Increased Respiratory Rate, Reduced Oxygen Saturation, Wheezing, Sputum Production Increased, Confusion.

Respiratory Symptoms: Pneumonia patients may have respiratory symptoms such as coughing, shortness of breath, chest discomfort, and trouble breathing.

Fever or high body temperature: The patient may have a fever or an elevated body temperature. It is critical to measure the temperature and precisely record the data.

Increased Respiratory Rate: Tachypnea is a frequent pneumonia symptom that may be accompanied by shallow or fast breathing.

Reduced Oxygen Saturation: The patient's oxygen saturation levels may be low, suggesting a lack of oxygen.

Wheezing: When the nurse listens to the patient's lungs with a stethoscope, she may detect crackles or wheezing noises, which indicate the presence of fluid or mucus in the lungs.

Sputum Production Increased: The patient may create more sputum or phlegm, which may be coloured (yellow, green, or brown).

Confusion: Pneumonia can induce confusion in certain people, especially elderly people or those with underlying medical issues.

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What is the ICD-10 code for vomiting and Nausea in pregnancy?

Answers

ICD-10 code O21. 9 is for Vomiting of pregnancy.

Some pregnant women suffer from severe nausea and vomiting. They may feel ill several times a day and unable to keep food or drink down, which might interfere with their everyday activities. This extreme nausea and vomiting is known as hyperemesis gravidarum (HG), and it frequently necessitates hospitalization.

Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are prevalent before 9 weeks of pregnancy. For the majority of women, it normally fades away by 14 weeks of pregnancy. Some ladies may experience it for several weeks or months. For a few women, it lasts the entire pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum is the medical term for severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. It is possible that the symptoms will be very unpleasant.

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What is the ICD 10 code for nasal congestion?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for nasal congestion is R09.81, which is used for other symptoms and signs involving the circulatory and respiratory systems, specifically for nasal congestion or rhinorrhea (runny nose).

The ICD-10 code for nasal congestion is R09.81, which is a code used for medical billing and record-keeping purposes. This code is part of a larger category for other symptoms and signs involving the circulatory and respiratory systems. Specifically, the R09.81 code is used for nasal congestion or rhinorrhea (runny nose). It is important to note that this code should only be assigned by a healthcare professional who has evaluated the patient and made a diagnosis. The ICD-10 coding system is used internationally to classify and code medical conditions and procedures, and it is used to streamline medical record-keeping, improve communication among healthcare providers, and facilitate research and data analysis.

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what is medical abbreviation bun ?

Answers

The medical abbreviation of BUN stands for Blood Urea Nitrogen. BUN is a laboratory test that measures the level of the urea nitrogen in the blood.

Urea nitrogen is a waste product that is produced in the liver when the body breaks down protein. It is then excreted from the body through the kidneys in the form of urine.

A BUN test is often ordered as part of a routine blood test, or to evaluate kidney function. Abnormal levels of BUN may indicate various medical conditions, such as kidney disease, dehydration, heart failure, or liver disease.

The normal range for BUN can vary depending on the laboratory and the patient's age and sex. Typically, the normal range is between 7 and 20 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) for adults. However, the normal range may be different for children or pregnant women.

It is important to note that while a high BUN level may indicate kidney or liver disease, it can also be caused by other factors such as dehydration, a high-protein diet, or the use of certain medications.

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What is non-declarative memory?

Answers

Depending on whatever sensory mode is involved in a given activity and whether or not performance of the task requires higher associative functions, nondeclarative memory systems are supported by vastly diverse brain areas.

For instance, it has been demonstrated through evidence from neuroimaging research and clinical information from people who have experienced focal cortical damage that priming has a neocortical substrate. In particular, the substrate for conceptual priming is found in multimodal association cortices, whereas the substrate for perceptual priming is located in the pertinent unimodal brain (e.g., visual priming in the occipital visual cortex, auditory priming in the auditory cortex).

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HELP!!

Unit 3 P5: Explain what is meant by a personal budget in person-centred care.

Unit 3 P6: Explain what is meant by a personal budget in person-centred care.

Unit 3 D1: Describe what personal budgets can and can't be used for.


P5: Make sure to explain the links between the Personal Budgets and Person-Centred Care. Think about how they are created and dispensed.

P6: Describe at least 2 uses for and 2 things it can't be used for.

D1: This asks you to evaluate your own approach. Make sure to use your experience and skills from placement. Then go onto how to improve your approach.

Answers

A personal budget is the overall cost of the care and support the local authority provides or arranges for you.

What are the features of personal budget?

A personal budget is a finance plan which allocates future income towards expenses, savings and debt repayment. Personal budgeting requires both creating a doable plan and following it.

Personal budgets apply to how you spend your personal income. Typical budget categories might include housing, utilities, groceries, and transportation. For a personal budget, most people try to reduce debt such as loans and credit cards.

And the internet is full of articles on the elements needed to create an effective budget: income, fixed expenses, variable expenses, and unplanned expenses.

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