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Answer:

D + 50 - 20 = 70

D = 70

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7°

Step-by-step explanation:

you get the minimum +the maximum ÷ 2

so : (0+14)÷2 =7°

Answer:

The probability of a white marble or black marble being drawn is 12/22.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, add all the marbles together.

6 + 10 + 4 + 2 = 22

10 + 2 = 12

= 12/22

I hope this helped and if it did I would appreciate it if you marked me Brainliest. Thank you and have a nice day!

Answer:

<M = 32 and <Y = 103

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Since triangle BCM is congruent to triangle ZYR, we know the corresponding parts of the triangles are congruent. Therefore, <Z = <B = 45. The sum of a triangle’s angles is 180, so <M = 180 - <B - <C = 180 - 45 - 103 = 32

2. This is the exact same diagram, so we can use the information we have collected in #1. Since corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent, <Y must be congruent to <C, which equals 103. Therefore, <Y = 103.

I hope this helps! :)

We need to plug in the numbers for x and y into the expression for x and y.

[tex]2x^{2} - y\\\\2(3)^{2} - (-2)\\\\2(3)^{2} + 2\\\\18 + 2\\\\20[/tex]

The simplified answer is 20.

Answer:

Its -2.125

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope helps!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

statement/reason

1) X midpoint for WZ / given

2) WX≅XZ / definition of midpoint (divides a line segment in two congruent parts) (S)

3) X midpoint for VY/ given

4) VX≅XY / definition of midpoint (S)

5) ∠WXV≅∠YXZ / vertical angles are congruent (A)

6) ΔVXW≅ΔYXZ / SideAngleSide Theorem of Congruency

Answer:

12.231

Step-by-step explanation:

you add them with the zeros

Answer:

12.231

Step-by-step explanation:

0.031+10+2.2

10.031+2.2

12.231

Answer:

Taylor???????????........

Answer:

I. Nerd Face

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

yw

Answer:

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

the two minus signs next to each other make it a plus sign so the equation would become

-10 + 5

which is -5

Hey there!

Usually when you come across the word “of” in mathematical problems , it simply means that you’re multiplying

So we can simply multiply 28.2% from 92

28.2% = 28.2/100 = 0.282

New equation

0.282 * 92 = the answer

0.282 * 92 = 25.944

Good luck on your assignment and enjoy your day!

~LoveYourselfFirst:)

Someone else on brainly already answered this question-

Answer:

t w e n t y c h a r e c t e r s l o n g

Answer:D

Step-by-step explanation: trust me ima sophomore use this for help y=1/2x+4 then x value change it to the number in the x section then if the y appears just like in the box the y section it’s correct

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: y<10

Step-by-step explanation:

2y<16+4

2y<20

y<10

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplifying

16 = 2y + -4

Reorder the terms:

16 = -4 + 2y

Solving

16 = -4 + 2y

Solving for variable 'y'.

Move all terms containing y to the left, all other terms to the right.

Add '-2y' to each side of the equation.

16 + -2y = -4 + 2y + -2y

Combine like terms: 2y + -2y = 0

16 + -2y = -4 + 0

16 + -2y = -4

Add '-16' to each side of the equation.

16 + -16 + -2y = -4 + -16

Combine like terms: 16 + -16 = 0

0 + -2y = -4 + -16

-2y = -4 + -16

Combine like terms: -4 + -16 = -20

-2y = -20

Divide each side by '-2'.

y = 10

Simplifying

y = 10

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  30°

Step-by-step explanation:

The relationship between triangle sides and angles can be remembered using the mnemonic SOH CAH TOA. Here, we're interested in the relationship involving the hypotenuse and the side opposite the angle:

  Sin = Opposite/Hypotenuse

For a ramp 1 m high and 2 m long, we have ...

  sin(x) = (1 m)/(2 m) = 1/2

  x = arcsin(1/2) = 30°

The elevation angle of the ramp needs to be 30°.

Step-by-step explanation:

1 0 +6 =16

........................

Answer: its 16 :)

Step-by-step explanation: see the negitive sign next the negitive, that means its positiveee

Answer:

Her weekly wage is $1150.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that,

Grace spent 16% of her weekly wage on a new bookshelf that cost $184.

We need to find her weekly wage.

Let her weekly wage is x.

ATQ,

[tex]16\%\ of\ x=184\\\\x=\dfrac{184}{16\%}\\\\=\dfrac{184}{\dfrac{16}{100}}\\\\=\$1150[/tex]

So, her weekly wage is $1150.

Answer:

6,000cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know if this is correct but, volume is LxWxH and for each rectangular prism, it is 20cm x 10cm x 15cm. So each rectangular prism is 3,000cm^3 and you add them together, you get answer.

Answer:

Jenn's account

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

LINDSAY'S ACCOUNT :

Principal = amount deposited = $250

Final Amount after 1 year = $253

Period (t) = 1 year

JENN'S ACCOUNT :

Principal = amount deposited = $250

Final Amount after 2 years = $257.50

Period (t) = 2 year

Using the relation :

A = P(1 + rt)

A = final amount ; r = interest rate ; t = time

Lindsay :

253 = 250(1 + r(1))

253 = 250 + 250r

253 - 250 = 250r

3 = 250r

r = 3/250

r = 0.012 ; (0.012 * 100) = 1.2%

Jenn:

257.50 = 250(1 + r(2))

257.50 = 250 + 500r

257.50 - 250 = 500r

7.50 = 500r

r = 7.50/500

r = 0.015 ; (0.015 * 100) = 1.5%

Hence, JENN'S deposit has the greater interest rate. (1.5 > 1.2)%

Answer:Sample response:Lindsay’s interest is $3 for one year. Using the formula for interest, I = prt, Lindsey’s money is earning at a rate of 1.2%. Jenn has earned $3.75 for one year. Her money is earning at a rate of 1.5%, which is a higher interest rate.

Step-by-step explanation: please make me brainliest

Answer:

(0,0) and (60,0)

Step-by-step explanation:

because they are the points on the x-axis

Answer:

57.14%

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert any fraction to a percentage you need to multiply it by 100

So,

4/7*100= 57.14 (round it off to two decimal places as the question states)

Step-by-step explanation:

9 in total numbers can't be divided by 3...

therefore your probability will be = 9/14

= 0.64